APSC Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2022 – GK Question Paper with Answer Key/solutions

APSC Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2022 Question Paper (Fully Solved with Answer Key/solutions)


General Knowledge (GK) Paper – 
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

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Section-wise Qs Analysis – Geography, History, Polity, Science & Tech, Economy, Environment, Aptitude,

APSC Forest Ranger Assam Forest Service assamexam

1. Who was the first President of Assam Sahitya Sabha, who is also known as ‘Sahitya Kandari’?

  1. Hemchandra Goswami
  2. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
  3. Lakshminath Bezbarua
  4. Mahendra Kondoli

Correct option: b. Padmanath Gohain Baruah

 

2. Ravi travels for 4 hours 30 minutes. He covers the journey at 30 kilometres per hour. What is the distance travelled by him?

  1. 160 kilometres
  2. 140 kilometres
  3. 135 kilometres
  4. 130 kilometres

Correct option: c. 135 kilometres

 

3. Consider the following:

  1. Pitakas
  2. Angas
  3. III. Jatakas

Which of the above is/are the branch(es) of Buddhist literature?

  1. I and lll only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. I only

Correct option: a. I and lll only

The prominent Buddhist canon includes Tripitaka or three baskets. Other Buddhist literature includes Jatakas, Mahavamsa, Bodhivamsa etc.

 

4. Who among the following from Assam has been awarded the country’s (India) highest science award ‘Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for the year 2021?

  1. Jitendra Nath Goswami
  2. Bhupendra Nath Goswami
  3. Prashant Goswami
  4. Binoy Kumar Saikia


Correct option: d. Binoy Kumar Saikia

  • Binoy Kumar Saikia is a Principal Scientist at North East Institute of Science and Technology, Jorhat (NEIST), Assam, India. He is also the Group Leader of the Coal and Energy Research Group in the Materials Science and Technology Division of NEIST.
  • He was awarded Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology in 2021 for his contributions to earth, atmosphere, ocean and planetary sciences.

 

5. As per the provision laid down in the Constitution of India, “all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.” Which Article in the Constitution guarantees these rights?

  1. a Article 21
  2. Article 25
  3. Article 30
  4. Article 31

Correct option: b. Article 25

Article 25 (Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion)

6. Who is the winner of Wimbledon Men’s Singles Title, 2022?

  1. Novak Djokovic
  2. Nick Kyrgios
  3. Rafael Nadal
  4. Roger Federer

Correct option: a. Novak Djokovic

 

7. Who is known as the ‘Luit Konwar of Assam’?

  1. Rudra Baruah
  2. Parvati Prasad Baruva
  3. Bishnu Prasad Rabha
  4. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala

Correct option: a. Rudra Baruah

 

8. The World Cup Football, 2022 will be held in Qatar. Which one among the following is a unique feature of this World Cup?

  1. All games will be played at night local Qatar time.
  2. For the first time, 42 teams will participate.
  3. For the first time in the history of the World Cup, some games will have women referees.
  4. Germany will not participate in the World Cup for the first time.

Correct option: c. For the first time in the history of the World Cup, some games will have women referees.

 

9. Which one of the following missiles developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is a hypersonic cruise missile?

  1. Prithvi-III
  2. Dhanush
  3. BrahMos-II
  4. Agni-IV

Correct option: c. BrahMos-II

 

10. Who was the Koch king who rebuilt the famous Kamakhya Temple after it was vandalized by the Muhammadans?

  1. Nara Narayan
  2. Lakshmi Narayan
  3. Dharma Narayan
  4. Sundar Narayan

Correct option: a. Nara Narayan

 

11. What is the value of the following? 30+ 40 ÷ (4 of 4)

  1. 32.5
  2. 40.5
  3. 70
  4. 160

Correct option: a. 32.5

30+ 40 ÷ (4 of 4)

=>30+ 40 ÷ (16)

=>30+ 2.5

=>32.5

 

12. The Indian National Congress was founded in the year 1885. Who was the Viceroy of British India during that time?

  1. Lord Curzon
  2. Lord Dufferin
  3. Lord Lytton
  4. Lord Minto


Correct option: b. Lord Dufferin

13. Who was the first ruler of Assam who established the Varman dynasty of Kamarupa in the year 350 AD?

  1. Samudravarman
  2. Bhaskaravarman
  3. Pushyavarman
  4. Narayanavarman


Correct option: c. Pushyavarman

 

14. Name the two Wildlife Sanctuaries declared as the 6th and 7th National Parks by the Government of Assam

  1. Dibru Saikhowa and Orang National Parks
  2. Raimona and Dihing Patkal National Parks
  3. Raimona and Manas National Parks
  4. Dibru Saikhowa and Dihing Patkai National Parks


Correct option: b. Raimona and Dihing Patkal National Parks

 

15. The Project NETRA of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is being developed with the aim of developing

  1. space stations to explore outer space beyond the solar system
  2. early warning system to detect space debris and other hazards to Indian satellites
  3. satellites for early warning of natural disasters
  4. drones for guiding hypersonic missiles

Correct option: b. early warning system to detect space debris and other hazards to Indian satellites

 

16. During the British Raj, a famous drama written by Dinabandhu Mitra portrayed the sufferings of Indian farmers who were forced by the British to cultivate

  1. poppy
  2. jute
  3. cotton
  4. Indigo

Correct option: d. Indigo

The play Nil Darpan by Dinabandhu Mitra written in 1858 – 59 portrayed the farmers’ situation accurately. It showed how farmers were coerced into planting indigo without adequate payment. The play became a talking point and it urged the Bengali intelligentsia to lend support to the indigo revolt.

 

17. Harappa was located on the bank of the river

  1. Indus
  2. Ravi
  3. Hindon
  4. Ghaggar

Correct option: b. Ravi

 

18. Which Ahom king is also known as “Bamuni Konwar”?

  1. Sutuphaa
  2. Sudangphaa
  3. Susenphaa
  4. Suphakphaa

Correct option: b. Sudangphaa

 

19. Who constructed the ‘Grand Trunk Road?

  1. Akbar
  2. Ashoka
  3. Sher Shah Suri
  4. Chandragupta Maurya

Correct option: c. Sher Shah Suri

 

  1. List- I gives the names of some scientific laboratories in the North-East India and List-11 gives the names of the places in which they are located. Match List- I with List–Il and give the correct match from the codes given below

List I

List II

a. Rain Forest Research Institute

1. Tezpur

b. Regional Medical Research Centre

2. Barapani near Shillong

c. North Eastern Space Application Centre

3. Jorhat

Defence Research Laboratory

4. Lahowal

  1. a 4 b 1 c 3 d 2
  2. a 1 b 3 c 2 d 4
  3. a 3 b 4 c 2 d 1
  4. a 2 b 3 c 4 d 1

Correct option: b.  a 1 b 3 c 2 d 4

21. What was the purpose of ‘Operation Ganga’ carried out by the Government of India?

  1. Evacuation of stranded Indians from Afghanistan
  2. Evacuation of stranded Indians from Ukraine
  3. Evacuation of stranded Indians from Uganda
  4. Evacuation of stranded Indians from Iraq

Correct option: b. Evacuation of stranded Indians from Ukraine

 

22. During the reign of the Ahom kings, two artists namely Dilbar and Dosai drew pictures and art of scenes from Ahom royal court and how an Ahom king rode an elephant. The compilation of such art form is found in the manuscript known as

  1. Darrang Rajvamsavali
  2. Dharma Purana
  3. Shankhachuda-Vadha
  4. Hastividyamava

Correct option: d. Hastividyamava

 

23. Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1929 was of significant importance because.

  1. the baton of leadership of the Congress was passed on to the younger generation
  2. the Indian Flag was hoisted for the first time during the inauguration of the Session
  3. the Session passed the Resolution of Purna Swaraj
  4. the Session resolved to end the Satyagraha Movement

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and III
  2. II and III
  3. II and IV
  4. I and IV

Correct option: b. II and III

 

24. One of the most important Sufi shrines in India is located at

  1. Pandua
  2. Bidar
  3. Ajmer
  4. Shahjahanabad

Correct option: c. Ajmer

 

25. A person buys an article of Rs. 56.25 and sells the same making a profit of 20%. At what price does he sell the article?

  1. Rs. 75.50
  2. Rs 70.50
  3. Rs 67.50
  4. Rs 59.50

Correct option: c. 67.5

20% of Rs 56.25 = Rs 11.25

Selling Price = Rs 56.25 + Rs 11.25 = Rs 67.5

 

26. Who among the following was the political Guru of Gandhiji?

  1. Surendranath Banerjee
  2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. Bipin Chandra Pal

Correct option: b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

 

27. For the first time in independent India, a non-Congress ministry was formed under the leadership of

  1. V. P. Singh
  2. Narasimha Rao
  3. Morarji Desai
  4. A. B. Vajpayee

Correct option: c. Morarji Desai

 

28. Which of the following is not a work of the 56th Jnanpith Awardee, 2021, Sri Nilmani Phookan?

  1. Gulapi Jamur Lagna
  2. Kobita
  3. Surjya Henu Nami Ahe Ei Nadiyedi
  4. Sagar Dekhisa

Correct option: d. Sagor Dekhisa

Nilmani Phookan His notable works include Surya Henu Nami Ahe Ei Nodiyedi, Gulapi Jamur Lagna, and Kobita. He was also awarded the 1981 Sahitya Akademi Award in Assamese for his poetry collection, Kavita (Kobita).  He was awarded the Padma Shri by Government of India in 1990, and received the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship, the highest literary honor in India, given by Sahitya Akademi, India’s National Academy of Letters in 2002.

Xagor Dekhisa is written By Debakanta Barua.

 

29. Badan Barphukan was assassinated by

  1. Raghab
  2. Rup Singh Subedar
  3. Madhab Jamuli
  4. Bhotai Deka

Correct option: b. Rup Singh Subedar

 

30. Which Burhagohain himself rejected the offer of becoming Ahom king on two occasions?

  1. Laluksola Burhagohain
  2. Atan Burhagohain
  3. Ruchinath Burhagohain
  4. Ghanashyam Burhagohain

Correct option: b. Atan Burhagohain

 

31. Which one of the following is the first State to establish Panchayati Raj System?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Correct option: b. Rajasthan

 

32. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for

  1. 5 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 2 years

Correct option: c. 6 years

 

33. Who among the following was the first person to criticise the economic policy of the British colonial power in India and was of the strong opinion that drain of wealth was the basic cause of poverty in India during the British rule?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Dadabhai Naoroji
  3. Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Correct option: b. Dadabhai Naoroji

  • Dadabhai Naoroji also known as the “Grand Old Man of India”, was an Indian political leader, merchant, scholar and writer who served as 2nd, 9th, and 22nd President of the Indian National Congress from 1886 to 1887, 1893 to 1894 and 1906 to 1907. He was a Liberal Party Member of Parliament in the British House of Commons, representing Finsbury Central between 1892 and 1895.
  • He was the second person of Asian descent to be a British MP, the first being Anglo-Indian MP David Ochterlony Dyce Sombre. He was also a member of the Second International.
  • His book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India brought attention to his theory of the Indian “wealth drain” into Britain.

 

34. The traditional Assamese bell metal industry is found in

  1. Jamuguri
  2. Sarthebari
  3. Asharikandi
  4. Dhemaji

Correct option: b. Sarthebari

 

35. Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sachcha Badshah’?

  1. Guru Gobind Singh
  2. Guru Hargobind
  3. Guru Teg Bahadur
  4. Guru Arjan Dev

Correct option: b. Guru Hargobind

36. Name the king who invaded Delhi and plundered the Kohinoor Diamond.

  1. Nadir Shah
  2. Alauddin Khilji
  3. Ahmad Shah Abdali
  4. Qutb ud-Din Aibak

 Correct option: a. Nadir Shah

 

37. The study of relics found in Harappa and Mohenjo-daro indicates that Indus Valley Civilization belonged to the

  1. Stone Age
  2. Iron Age
  3. Bronze Age
  4. Copper Age

Correct option: c. Bronze Age

 

38. In which district of Assam is the Pani Dihing Bird Sanctuary located?

  1. Tinsukia
  2. Charaideo
  3. Bajali
  4. Sivasagar


Correct option: d. Sivasagar

 

39. In which district of Assam is the Peacock Island in the river Brahmaputra located?

  1. Goalpara
  2. Dhemaji
  3. Kamrup (Metro)
  4. Jorhat

Correct option: c. Kamrup (Metro)

 

40. Buland Darwaza, which has a mixture of Hindu and Persian types of architecture, is situated in

  1. Fatehpur Sikri
  2. Daulatabad
  3. Bulandshahr
  4. Sarnath

Correct option: a. Fatehpur Sikri

 

41. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 4:3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio of milk and water becomes 4:5. What is the quantity of milk in the mixture?

  1. 8 litres
  2. 10 litres
  3. 16 litres
  4. 18 litres

Correct option: b. 10 litres

4x/(3x+5)=4/5         =>20x = 12x + 20

=>8x = 20                 =>x = 2.5

Quantity of milk = 4(2.5)=10 litres

 

42. The English Education Act of 1835 was introduced to put an end to Indian traditional education in Sanskrit and Persian and to introduce English education in the country. Who was the Governor General who implemented the Act?

  1. Lord Charles Canning
  2. Lord Warren Hastings
  3. Lord William Bentinck
  4. Lord Dalhousie

Correct option: c. Lord William Bentinck

 

43. Which one of the following is taken as the Standard Meridian for finding Indian Standard Time?

  1. 60°30′ East
  2. 75°30′ East
  3. 82° 30′ East
  4. 90°30′ East

Correct option: c. 820 30 East

 

44. Which Assamese playwright and actor is known as Natasurya?

  1. Phani Sarmal
  2. Syed Abdul Malik
  3. Achyut Lahkar
  4. Benudhar Rajkhowa

Correct option: a. Phani Sarmal

 

45. A certain sum of money at simple interest at 13.5% per annum amounts to Rs 2,502.50 after 4 years. Find the sum of money invested.

  1. Rs 1,925.00
  2. Rs 1,825.00
  3. Rs 1,725.00
  4. Rs 1,625.00

Correct option: d. Rs 1,625.00

A = P(1+RT/100)      =>P=Ax100/(100+RT)

Principle Amount    = 2502.5×100/(100+4×13.5)

= Rs 1,625.00

 

46. During the British colonial rule in India, the Partition of Bengal was done in the year

  1. 1890
  2. 1905
  3. 1911
  4. 1919

Correct option: b. 1905

 

47. The Department of Revenue and Disaster Management, Government of Assam has developed an online portal called Mission Basundhara, 2022 for citizen of Assam which will enable the people to apply for

  1. Land-related services districts in all districts of Assam
  2. relief to flood-affected people in rural areas of the State
  3. financial assistance from the government to preserve wetland
  4. pension-related grievances retired government officials

Correct option: a. Land-related services districts in all districts of Assam

 

48. The President of India can declare a National Emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion under constitutional provision of

  1. Article 352
  2. Article 355
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 358

Correct option: a. Article 352

 

49. The Sangam literature of ancient India is

  1. Persian literature
  2. Tamil literature
  3. Bhojpuri literature
  4. Aryan literature

Correct option: b. Tamil literature

 

50. Mount Manipur is a National Park located in

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Lahaul and Spiti region of Himachal Pradesh
  3. Lakhshadweep
  4. Shivalik Range of Uttar Pradesh

Correct option: a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

51. The highest saltwater lake in the world situated at a height of 4350 metres is

  1. Baikal Lake in Russia
  2. Pangong Lake in Ladakh in India
  3. Superior Lake in North America
  4. Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir in India

Correct option: b. Pangong Lake in Ladakh in India

 

52. The Kokilabari Seed Farm in Baksa district of Assam is reported to be one of the last refuges of the critically endangered species of bird known as

  1. Bengal florican
  2. Black drongo
  3. Asian koel
  4. Black-naped monarch

Correct option: a. Bengal florican

 

53. Indian dancer Pandit Birju Maharaj was associated with which Indian national dance form?

  1. Odissi
  2. Kuchipudi
  3. Kathak
  4. Manipuri

Correct option: c. Kathak

 

54. Match the following and choose the correct matching from the codes given below

Names of social/ religious movements in India

Names of persons associated

a Arya Samaj

1. Kartar Singh Jhabbar

b. Khalsa Panth

2 Dayanand Saraswati

c. Akali movement

3. Sohan Singh Bhakna

d. Ghadar movement

    4. Guru Govind Singh

  1. a 1 b 3 c 4 d 2
  2. a 3 b 4 c 1 d 2
  3. a 2 b 4 c 1 d 3
  4. a 3 b 1 c 4 d 2

Correct option: c. a 2 b 4 c 1 d 3

 

55. The following sequence of numbers follows a specific pattern. On the basis of the pattern, what will be the missing number in the sequence? 3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48

  1. 37
  2. 38
  3. 40
  4. 45

Correct option: b. 38

Next term increases by alternate of +5 and +10

 

56. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins is the main cause of rickets?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin E
  4. Vitamin D

Correct option: d. Vitamin D

 

57. Who among the following was an Indian social activist, anti-caste social reformer and writer who advocated emancipation and empowerment of women and education of girls during the early years of India’s Independence Movement?

  1. Jyotiba Phule
  2. W. C. Bonnerjee
  3. Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. Baba Ram Chandra

Correct option: a. Jyotiba Phule

 

58. Fato Bihu’ is celebrated by which community of Assam?

  1. Kaibarta Community of Dhakuakhana
  2. Tiwa Community of Morigaon
  3. Thengal Kachari Community of Moran
  4. Phakial Community of Tinsukia

Correct option: a. Kaibarta Community of Dhakuakhana

 

59. Which one of the following is the largest nuclear power station in India in terms of power generation capacity?

  1. Kalpakkam
  2. Kudankulam
  3. Kaiga
  4. Kakrapar

Correct option: b. Kudankulam

 

60. Who was also popularly known as ‘Ekhud Kokaideu”?

  1. Nabakanta Banja
  2. Hem Barua
  3. Nalinidhar Bhattacharya
  4. Nabin Chandra Bardoloi

Correct option: a. Nabakanta Banja

 

61. The Red Data Book’ is related to

  1. pollution of rivers
  2. decreasing underground water level
  3. animals near extinction
  4. air pollution

Correct option: c. animals near extinction

 

62. Who led the famous 1857 Revolt against the British in Assam?

  1. Plyoll Phukan and Jiuram Dulia Baruah
  2. Harakanta and Haranath
  3. Maniram Dewan and Piyoli Baruah
  4. None of them

Correct option: c. Maniram Dewan and Piyoli Baruah

 

63. Which committee called Panchayati Rai Institutions ‘grass without roots”?

  1. G. V. K. Rao Committee
  2. Dantwala Committee
  3. Hanumantha Rao Committee
  4. Dr L M. Singhvi Committee

Correct option: a. G. V. K. Rao Committee

 

64. When was NITI Aayog established?

  1. 1st January, 2015
  2. 25th January, 2016
  3. 14th May, 2014
  4. 1st July, 2015

Correct option: a. 1st January, 2015

 

65. Sadiya Khowa Gohain was a

  1. Zamindar
  2. king
  3. frontier officer
  4. naval commander

Correct option: c. frontier officer

 

66. Besides dog, the bite of which other animal can cause rabies?

  1. Donkey
  2. Bat
  3. Horse
  4. Crocodile

Correct option: b. Bat

 

  1. DDT is a
  1. greenhouse gas
  2. degradable pollutant
  3. non-degradable pollutant
  4. None of the above

Correct option: c. non-degradable pollutant

 

68. LAN stands for

  1. Local Area Nods
  2. Local Area Network
  3. Large Area Network
  4. None of the above

Correct option: b. Local Area Network

 

69. Who won the Oscar Award, 2022 for the Best Director category?

  1. Jane Campion
  2. Kenneth Branagh
  3. Ryusuke Hamaguchi
  4. Paul Thomas Anderson

Correct option: a. Jane Campion

 

70. The International Yoga Day observed on

  1. 21st March
  2. 21st May
  3. 21st June
  4. 21st December

Correct option: c. 21st June

71. The names of the Panchayati Raj Institutions of the State of Assam are

  1. Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zilla Parishad
  2. Gaon Panchayat, Anchalik Panchayat and Zilla Parishad
  3. Village Panchayat, Anchal Samiti and Zilla Parishad
  4. Gram Panchayat, Janpad Panchayat and Zilla Panchayat

Correct option: b. Gaon Panchayat, Anchalik Panchayat and Zilla Parishad

 

72. Anuradha Sharma Pujari won the Sahitya Akademi Award for her novel

  1. Yat Ekhon Aranya Asil
  2. Jalachabi
  3. Neel Prajapati
  4. Mereng

Correct option: a. Yat Ekhon Aranya Asil

 

73. The present Secretary-General of the United Nations, Antonio Guterres, belongs to which one of the following countries?

  1. Spain
  2. Portugal
  3. Argentina
  4. Paraguay

Correct option: b. Portugal

 

74. Badungduppa is a musical instrument used by the

  1. Dimasa Community
  2. Rabha Community
  3. Tea Garden Labour Community
  4. Khelma Community

Correct option: b. Rabha Community

 

75. Where in India do you find the tropical thorn forest?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. West Bengal
  3. Chhattisgarh
  4. Jammu and Kashmir

Correct option: a. Rajasthan

 

76. Who was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj?

  1. Swami Dayananda
  2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Atmaram Pandurang
  4. Ramakrishna Paramahansa

Correct option: c. Atmaram Pandurang

 

77. The Arogya Nidhi Scheme of the Government of Assam is aimed to provide

  1. financial assistance to families below poverty line for specialized treatment of life-threatening diseases
  2. free of cost treatment for all COVID-19 patients during the pandemic
  3. financial assistance for the revival of sick industrial unit of young entrepreneurs of the State
  4. waiver of bank loans of women covered under Micro Finance Scheme

Correct option: a. financial assistance to families below poverty line for specialized treatment of life-threatening diseases

 

78. The architect of the famous Bhoodan Movement was

  1. Jayaprakash Narayan
  2. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
  3. Acharya Kripalani
  4. Baba Amte

Correct option: b. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

 

79. Who among the following was not influenced by Mahatma Gandhi’s concept of Non-violence?

  1. Lech Walesa
  2. Nelson Mandela
  3. Martin Luther King
  4. Winston Churchill

Correct option: d. Winston Churchill

 

80. The Chauri Chaura incident that occurred in 1922 was during the

  1. Non-Cooperation Movement
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Swadeshi Movement
  4. Civil Disobedience Movement

Correct option: a. Non-Cooperation Movement

 

81. Which one of the following processes is responsible for transforming any liquid to its vapour?

  1. Condensation
  2. Evaporation
  3. Transpiration
  4. Precipitation

Correct option: b. Evaporation

 

82. Who is known as the Iron Man of India’?

  1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  2. Bhagat Singh
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. Chandra Shekhar Azad

Correct option: c. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

 

83. Which type of soil is best known for cultivation of cotton?

  1. Red soil
  2. Black soll
  3. Laterite soil
  4. Alluvial soil

Correct option: b. Black soll

 

84. Who is recognized as the pioneer of feminist movement in Assam?

  1. Chandraprabha Saikiani
  2. Bhogeswari Phukanani
  3. Dariki Dasi Baruah
  4. Nalini Bala Devi

Correct option: a. Chandraprabha Saikiani

 

85. What is the immediate but not an exclusive reason for war between Russia and Ukraine in the year 2022?

  1. Ukraine’s desire to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organization
  2. Russian annexation of Crimea
  3. Ukraine’s desire to join the European Union
  4. Russian move to occupy the nuclear facilities in Ukraine for national security

Correct option: a. Ukraine’s desire to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organization

 

86. Who is the first Indian athlete to have won a gold medal in a track and field event in a world athletic meet?

  1. Shiny Abraham
  2. Hima Das
  3. Neeraj Chopra
  4. P. T. Usha


Correct option: b. Hima Das

On 12 July 2018, Das won the 400 m final at the World U-20 Championships 2018 held at Tampere, Finland, clocking 51.46 seconds and becoming the first Indian sprinter to win a gold medal at an international track event.

Indian Medallists at the World Athletics Championships

Medal

Name

Year

Event

 Bronze

Anju Bobby George

2003 Paris

Women’s long jump

 Silver

Neeraj Chopra

2022 Eugene

Men’s javelin throw

 

87. The largest United States military base in Afghanistan was

  1. Bagram Air Base
  2. Kandahar Military Base
  3. Panjshir Valley Base
  4. Bamyan Air Base

Correct option: a. Bagram Air Base

 

88. The areas covered under the ‘Portuguese Settlements in India’ at the time of British India’s Independence in 1947 did not include

  1. Goa
  2. Daman and Diu
  3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  4. Pondicherry

Correct option: d. Pondicherry

 

89. Who wrote the Indian National Song, Vande Mataram?

  1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  2. Rabindranath Tagore
  3. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
  4. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose

Correct option: c. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

 

90. The Moamoria Rebellion which took place in the year 1769 started during the reign of which one of the following Ahom kings?

  1. Gaurinath Singha
  2. Rudra Singha
  3. Pratap Singha
  4. Lakshmi Singha

Correct option: d. Lakshmi Singha

 

91. Which Article of the Constitution of India allows the Centre to form new State?

  1. Article 2
  2. Article 3
  3. Article 4
  4. Article 6

Correct option: b. Article 3

 

92. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairperson, Finance Commission
  3. III. The Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. The Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. ENT

  1. I, II and III only
  2. I, III and IV only
  3. II and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV

Correct option: b. I, III and IV only

National Development Council comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States or their substitutes, representatives of the Union Territories and the members of the NITI Aayog.

 

93. The Chairperson of the UPSC is appointed by

  1. the Prime Minister of India
  2. the President of India
  3. the Central Education Minister
  4. the Vice President of India

Correct option: b. the President of India

 

94. What is the minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who must sit together to constitute a Constitution Bench?

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9

Correct option: b. 5

 

95. Who is the final authority in approving the design, form and material of banknotes?

  1. The Governor of the RBI
  2. The Central Board of the RBI
  3. The Central Government on the recommendations of the Central Board of the RBI
  4. The Governor of the RBI in consultation with the Central Government

Correct option: c. The Central Government on the recommendations of the Central Board of the RBI

 

96. The first peasant uprising in Assam against the British was known as

  1. Phulaguri Uprising
  2. Patharughat Raijmel
  3. Battle of Itakhuli
  4. None of the above

Correct option: a. Phulaguri Uprising

 

97. Which of the following States is India’s present top sugar producer?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Kerala
  4. Gujarat

Correct option: a. Maharashtra

 

98. The permission for withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must be given by

  1. the President of India
  2. the Parliament of India
  3. the Prime Minister of India
  4. the Union Finance Minister

Correct option: b. the Parliament of India

 

99. Which one of the following is most abundant radioactive element found in India?

  1. Uranium
  2. Plutonium
  3. Thorium
  4. Radium

Correct option: c. Thorium

 

100. Who delivered the famous speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ in the Indian Constituent on the eve of India’s Independence on 14th August, 1947?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Correct option: b. Jawaharlal Nehru 

Disclaimer: The answer keys and solution given here are found most suitable to us. The correct answer keys will be what APSC decides and may varies from what is given here.

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

Download APSC Forest Ranger 2022 GK Paper PDF

APSC Forest Ranger 2019 General Knowledge GK Paper Sectional Analysis

APSC Assam Forest Ranger 2019 – General Knowledge GK Paper Sectional Analysis & Distribution

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

The GK Paper is analysed and section-wise break-up of the total no. of questions and marks are done here, to give you a better idea of the areas/topics more question appears in the exam.

You can see from the above picture, ‘Current Affairs & GK‘ and ‘Geography’ sections were heavily represented in the paper, and surprisingly the ‘Environment’ section was not as heavily represented as we would have supposed, just like in the 2014 Paper.

 

These analysis should be taken as an input for making your preparation strategy, But please don’t be too stick to this trend as a lot has changes since 2014 ( The exam was last conducted). Some changes we can expect for sure in this years exam.

Good Luck!!

Section Qs Questions

Geography

Analysis video

25

Assam/NE related 7

Q2. Ozone layer is found in atmosphere approximately in between

(A) 10km-17km

Explanation: Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17 kilometers) above the Earth’s surface and extends up to about 30 miles (50 kilometers).

Q6. The pattern of drainage of the river Brahmaputra is known as

(A) Braided

Q7. Natural vegetation of Assam is basically

(A) tropical moist deciduous

Q8. The largest area of the Brahmaputra basin falls in the territory of

(C) China

Q9. The average rainfall of Assam is all about

(C) 212cm

Q10. How many bamboo species are available in Assam?

(C) 42

Q13. The Bhakra Hydroelectric Power Project uses the water of

(B) Sutlej River

Q14. Which of the following countries has the largest reserve of coal?

(A) USA

Q15. Which of the following elements is found in highest quantity in the crust of the earth?

(A) Oxygen

Q16. Name the state that does not have any wind power prospective sites.

(C) Uttar Pradesh

Q17. Which of the following States of India shares boundaries with six other States?

(D) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: The answer is correct considering Telangana and Andhra Pradesh as one. The Question may be old.

Q18. Which one of the following is the smallest State of India in terms of population?

(B) Sikkim

Q21. Which of the following is a cold desert?

(D) Gobi

Q22. The Lake Superior, the largest fresh water lake, is located in

(B) The USA

Explanation: Lake Superior is cshared by both Canada and the US. It’s total surface area in 82,000 sq, km (of which 29,000 sq.km in Canada). So, more area in the US. 

Q27. The largest and the busiest inland waterways in the world is

(C) The Great Lakes and the river St. Lawrence in the USA

Q28. Which State in India has the largest forest cover?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

Q43. The Shivalik Hills are parts of the mountain range of

(C) Himalaya

Q44. Which one of the following is a fast growing tree?

(C) Eucalyptus

Q48. Gender Development Index (GDI) was introduced for the first time in Human Development Report of

(D) 2014

Q54. The cold and dense air blowing down the mountain slope during night is known as

(C) Katabatic wind

Q56. Which of the following tree in not a softwood variety?

(B) Mahogany

Q57.  Which state of India is the highest producer of natural rubber?

(C) Kerala

Q81. Which two steel plans in India were set up in collaboration with Russia?

(C) Bhilai and Bokaro

Q79. The National Waterway No. 2 connects

(C) Sadiya and Dhubri

Q82. The important centres of iron and steel industry in India are

(B) Bhilai, Durgapur, Burnpur, Jamshedpur and Rourkela


Study Materials and Notes

Environment

Analysis video

4

Assam/NE related 2

Q3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of green product?

(D) Factory products with green colour

Q4. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(D) Botanical Garden

Q11. Which one of the following is not a Tiger Reserve in Assam?

(D) Dibru-Saikhowa

Q12. Which of the following is not an Elephant reserve in Assam?

(B) Pabitara


Study Materials and Notes

Current Affairs & GK

Analysis video

34

Assam/NE related 4

Q1. Down to Earth, a science and environment fortnightly is published by the

(C) Centre for Science and Environment

Q23. The headquarters of the UNESCO is located in

(D) Paris

Q24. The modern Olympic Games were started in Athens in the year

(B) 1896

Q25. Indian sprinter Hima Das won gold medal in 4x400m relay in the Asian Games held in

(C) Indonesia

Q26. Which one of the following is the cheapest means transport?

(D)  Waterways

Q30. Where was the country’s first tourism mart held in September 2018?

(D) New Delhi

Q31. Which one of the following is the first film directed by Dr. Bhupen Hazarika?

(A) Era Bator Sur

Q33. The Mahatma Gandhi Setu is on the river

(C) Ganga

Q34. The International puppet festival on October 2017 was hosted by

(A) Kolkata

Q35. Which was the first Indian city to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?

(D) Ahmedabad

Q37. The ‘Digital India’ Programme was launched in

(B) July 2015

Q38. What is the national flower of India?

(B) Lotus

Q39. What is the national bird of India?

(C) The Indian Peacock

Q40. What is the national animal of India?

(D) Royal Bengal Tiger

Q45. India’s rank in Global Hunger Index, 2017 is

(A) 100th

Q49. The Headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is in the city of

(B) Manila

Q51. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in

(A) 2005

Q60. The Olympic Council of Asia has extended recognition to which Indian indigenous sport?

(B) Kho-kho

Q61. Which state Government has decided to rename its capital as ‘Atal Nagar’?

(A) Chhattisgarh

Q62. Which two nations usually conduct combat exercise called ‘Yudh Abhyas’?

(D) India and the USA

Q69. Solung is a folk festival of the Adi tribe of

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

Q71. Who was the author of the first report on ‘State of India’s Environment, 1982’?

(A) Anil Agarwal

Q73. Elephant Gold was authored by

(C) P D Stracey

Q74. The Fall of a sparrow is the autobiography of

(D) Salim Ali

Q75. The novel, The Glass Palace was written by

(B) Amitav Ghosh

Q76. Ecomark logo of India is a/an

(A) Earthen Pot

Q77. The American Dictionary of the English Langauge was first published in the year

(D) 1828

Q65. The North Eastern Council was set up in

(B) 1972

Q80. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in located in

(D) Mumbai

Q83. International Women’s Day is observed on

(B) 8th March

Q84. Asomiya Lorar Mitra was written by

(A) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan

Q85. The Run for Unity Programme was launched on 31.10.2018 as a makr of tribute to

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q86. On 11.22.2018, World Leaders celebrated the first centenary of the end of which great war?

(D) World War I

Q98. The sixth edition of the International Buddhist Conclave, 2018 was held in the city of

(C) New Delhi


Study Materials and Notes

History

Analysis video

9

Assam/NE related 5

Q78. The Simla Agreement was signed by India and Pakistan in the year

(B) 1972

Q87. What was the capital of the province called ‘Eastern Bengal and Assam’?

(A) Dhaka

Q88. The martyrdom of Kushal Konwar is related to the

(C) Quit India Movement of 1942

Q89. Who among the following was a Governor of Madras?

(A) Bishnuram Medhi

Q91. The first ever Census of India was undertaken in the year

(C) 1872

Q94. The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed on

(B) 24 February 1826

Q95. Find out the course of the Stilwell Road?

(D) Assam, Myanmar, China

Q96. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi during the Viceroyalty of

(B) Lord Handinge

Q100. Who was the first Woman President of the Indian National Congress?

(A) Annie Besant


Study Materials and Notes

Polity

Analysis video

4

Assam/NE related 1

Q90. Nagaland became the 16th state of the Indian Union in the year

(C) 1963

Q92. What is the total number of States and Union Territories in India at present?

(C) 29, 7

Q93. How many hours before actual polling, the election campaign has to stop in our country?

(D) 48 hours

Q97. Untouchability is prohibited by the Constitution of India under the  

(A) Article 17



Study Materials and Notes

Science & Technology

Analysis video

16

Q19. The fuel having high ignition temperature is

(D) Wood

Q20. Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 was caused by

(C) Methyl isocyanate

Q42. Common Salt is

(B) Sodium Chloride

Q47. The communication satellite, which was successfully launched recently is

(A) GSAT-29

Explanation: GSAT-29 launched on 14 November 2018 and GSAT-6Awas launched on March 2018.

Q52.  Which is the first metal used by man?

(B) Copper

Q53. Which of the following planets is known as morning star?

(D)  Venus

Q55. Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?

(A) Mercury and Venus

Q58. The best conductor of electricity is

(D) Saltwater

Q59. Optic fibres are mainly used for

(A) Communication

Q66. To as astronaut in a spacecraft, the colour of the sky appears

(A) Black

Q67. Lactometer is used for testing

(C) Purity of milk

Q68. Gobar gas contain mainly

(D) Methane

Q70. Assembly language is

(C) low level programming language

Q72. Who is known as the ‘father of the Green Revolution’ in India?

(B) M S Swaminathan

Q99. The first Indian Satellite launched in 1975 was

(D) Aryabhata

Q29. The White Revolution is associated with the name of

(C) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Aptitude

Analysis video

3

Q5. Find out the largest fraction.

(B) 4/5

Q63. What is the greatest number that will divide 99, 123, and 183 leaving the same remainder in each case?

(A) 12

Solution: Required number=H.C.F. of (123-99), (183-123) and (183-99) = H.C.F. of 24, 60 and 84 = 12

Q64. A shop owner purchased an air conditioner for Rs. 12,000 and sold it for Rs. 15,000. What was the percentage of profit?

(B) 25

Solution: ((15000-12000)/12000)x100 = 25%

Economy

Analysis video

5

Q32. The term ‘bull’ and ‘bear’ are used in the

(B) Stock Exchange

Q36. The first Share market in India was established in the city of

(B) Mumbai

Q41. A temporary tax levied to obtain revenue is called

(A) Cess

Explanation: Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on an existing tax. It is usually permanent in nature.

Cess is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need.

Q46. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for

(B) Credit Card

Q50. What is ‘Green Banking’?

(A) Bank Financing on pro-environment projects.

Based on the Above detailed Analysis, we will be conducting a comprehensive Test Series for GK Paper.

APSC Forest Ranger 2014 GK Paper Analysis

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry optional Question Paper PART 2

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 

Forestry optional Question Paper PART 2 (Q51-Q100)

APSC Forest Ranger Assam Forest Service assamexam

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

See APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry Qs Paper Part A (Q1-Q50)

51. Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam is located in the district of
(A) Darrang
(B) Baksa
(C) Udalguri
(D) Sonitpur
 
52. Which one of the following is a Biosphere Reserve?
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Nameri
(C) Dehing Patkai
(D) Dibru-Saikhowa
 
53. Which one of the following primates
(A) Nilgiri Langur
(B) Bonnet Macaque
(C) Phayre’s Leaf Monkey
(D) Slender Loris
 

 
54. Which of the following is a Ramsar site?
(A) Deepor Beel
(B) Joysagar
(C) Maguri Beel
(D) Chand Dubi
 
55. Which one of the following monkeys, reportedly was unknown to science, has been discovered in North-East Region of India?
(A) Stump-tailed macaque
(B) Assamese macaque
(C) Arunachal macaque
(D) Pig-tailed macaque
 
56. The instrument used for measuring the height of a tree is
(A) Anemometer
(B) Clinometer
(C) Phoropter 
(D) Hygrometer
 
57. The name Carolus Linnaeus’ is associated with
(A) binomial nomenclature of plants and animals
(B) theory of heredity
(C) silvicultural systems
(D) plantation technique
 
58. The type of germination of seeds that takes place before detachment from the parent plant, is called as
(A) epigeal germination
(B) hypogeal germination
(C) viviparous germination
(D) pseudogermination
 
59. The process of change in the structure of various species of an ecological community over a period of time is called as
(A) evolutionary ecology
(B) ecological succession
(C) ecosystem diversity
(D) ecologically sustainable development
 
60. The Rain Forest Research Institute is located at
(A) Shillong
(B) Dehradun
(C) Kolkata
(D) Jorhat
 
61. The only vulture breeding centre in Assam is located at
(A) Amsoi
(B) Rani
(C) Kaziranga
(D) Guwahati
 
62. The International Day of Forests is observed every year on
(A) 1st January
(B) 21st March
(C) 5th June
(D) 22nd May
 
63. The worldwide movement ‘Earth Hour’ is organized by
(A) IUCN
(B) WWF
(C) WII
(D) UNESCO
 
64. What is the main activity during ‘Earth Hour’ Celebrations?
(A) Plantation
(B) Cleaning of surrounding areas
(C) Turning off of electrical lights from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m.
(D) None of the above
 
65. In the year 2008, the population of Gangetic dolphins was estimated to be
(A) 200
(B) 214
(C) 315
(D) 248
 
 
66. The cause of decline in vulture population has been traced out as excessive use of which of the following medicines for treatment of cattle?
(A) Ibuprofen
(B) Piroxicam
(C) Diclofenac
(D) None of the above
 
67. The theme of World Environment. Day-2018 was
(A) Beat plastic pollution
(B) Resource efficiency and sustainable consumption and production
(C) Connecting people to Nature -in the city and on land, from poles to equator
(D) Think, Eat, Save
 
68. As per the Forest Survey of India, an aren is classified as Moderately Dense Forest, when the canopy density is found to be
(A) 50-70%
(B) 40-60%
(C) 40-50%
(D) 40-70%
 
69. The Rhino population in Assam is estimated by
(A) sample count method
(B) total direct count method
(C) dung count method
(D) camera trapping method
 
70. Which one of the following is an exotic species?
(A) Michelia champaca
(B) Dalbergia sisso
(C) Dipterocarpus macrocarpus TER
(D) Tectona grandis
 
71. Gangetic Dolphin’ is a
(A) fish
(B) mammal
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
 
72. Manas is
(A) a National Park and Tiger Reserve only
(B) Wildlife Sanctuary Biosphere Reserve only
(C) World Natural Heritage Site
(D) All of the above
 
73. The Academy Training of IFS Officers is named after
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
 
74. The Headquarters of Forest Survey of India is in
(A) Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai
(D) Dehradun
 
75. The timber from Shorea robusta is primarily used for
(A) construction purposes
(B) furniture
(C) plywood and veneers
(D) None of the above
 
76. Poplars are very good species for
(A) making pulpwood
(B) furnitures
(C) cricket bats
(DJ None of the above
 
77. Quarter Girth Formula is used for
(A) measuring height of a tree
(B) measuring area of a plantation
(C) measuring volume of log
(D) None of the above
 
78. The idea of celebrating Mahotsava every year was mooted by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) K. M. Munshi
(D) None of them
 
79. In the Constitution of India, Forest and Forestry appear in
(A) State List
(B) Central List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) None of the above
 
 
 
80. In Forestry, thinning means
(A) felling of trees
(B) planting of seedlings
(C) removal of weeds
(D) removal of weak poles for giving enough space for remaining poles of better quality
 
81. Which one of the following is a winter flowering species?
(A) Shorea robusta
(B) Acacia catechu
(C) Gmelina arborea
(D) None of the above
 
82. The plant which blooms at night is
(A) Nyctanthes arbor-tristis
(B) Butea monosperma
(C) Tectona grandis
(D) Mangifera indica
 
83. The standard Breast Height (BH) for measuring diameter of trees in
(A) 1.42 m
(B) 1.52 m
(C) 1.37 m
(D) 1.6 m
 
84. Which of the following pairs does not match?
(A) Citrus maxima- Rutaceae
(B) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis – Verbenaceae
(C) Gmelina arborea – Verbenaceae
(D) Tectona grandis – Verbenaceae
 
85. Which one of the following is evergreen species?
(A) Bombax ceiba
(B) Acacia cutechu
(C) Michelia champaca
(D) Terminalia bellirica
 
86. The Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro was held in
(A) 1989
(B) 1990
(C) 1991
(D) 1992
 
87. Ex-situ conservation means
(A) conservation of wild species in laboratories
(B) conservation of wild species in greenhouses
(C) conservation of wild species outside its natural habitats
(D) None of the above
 
88. Agar oil is extracted from
(A) Rauvolfia serpentina
(B) Litsea cubeba
(C) Taxus baccata
(D) Aquilaria agallocha
 
89. The age of a tree of some species can be estimated by
(A) counting its branches
(B) measuring height of the tree
(C) counting rings in the stem
(D) None of the above
 
90. What would be the length of boundary fencing for a rectangular plantation plot of 200 meters long and 150 meters wide?
(A) 350 m
(B) 400 m
(C) 600 m
(D) 700 m
 
91. The area of a plot of rectangular shape, 200 m long and 150 m wide would be
(A) 2 ha
(B) 3 ha
(C) 4 ha
(D) None of the above
 
92. Lac is produced from the secretion from
A) stem of the tree
(B) bark of the tree
(C) an insect which is parasite on tree
(D) None of the above
 
93. Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the district of
(A) Kokrajhar
(B) Bongaigaon
(C) Dhubri
(D) None of the above
 
94. Orang Tiger Reserve is spread across
(A) Udalguri
(B) Darrang
(C) Sonitpur
(D) Darrang and Sonitpur
 
95. Which of the following is a Schedule I Species listed in the Wildlife (Protection) Act?
(A) Sambar
(B) Golden Langur
(C) Porcupine
(D) Hyaena
 
96. The Regional Office of the MoEF&CC for North-East Region is located at
(A) Guwahati
(B) Shillong
(C) Itanagar
(D) Kohima
 
97. The only ape found in Assam is
(A) Assamese Macaque
(B) Slow Loris
(C) Malayan Sun Bear
(D) Hoolock Gibbon
 
98. “The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country’ refers to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution?
(A) Article 51
(B) Article 49B
(C) Article 48A
(D) Article 50A
 
99. Dietrich Brandis was
(A) first Governor of Assam
(B) first Inspector General of Forests of Assam
(C) first Inspector General of Forests of India
(D) None of the above
 
100. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct type of vegetation and wildlife is called
(A) ecology
(B) biome
(C) biodiversity
(D) biosphere reserve

See APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry Qs Paper Part A (Q1-Q50)

Previous Years Questions

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry optional Question Paper PART 1

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 

Forestry optional Question Paper PART 1 (Q1-Q50)

APSC Forest Ranger Assam Forest Service assamexam

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

1. As per the provisions of the Assam Forest Regulation, the forest villagers were established 
(A) within the limits of a Reserved Forest 
(B) for providing a source of labour
(C) without giving any heritable right over the allotted land
(D) All of the above
 
2. As per the provisions of rules made under Section 72(C) of the Assam Forest Regulation, any unauthorized occupant in any Reserved Forest 
(A) can be ejected or ordered by the DFO to vacate forthwith
(B) can be ejected only after taking approval from the Government
(C) can be ejected with prior permission from the Government
(D) None of the above
 
3. As per the provisions of the Assam Forest Regulation, the number of days an adult Forest Villager is required to provide labour per annum at the prevailing rate of wages is
(A) 12 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 25 days
(D) None of the above
 
4. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 has been promulgated for in
(A) preventing encroachment notified forest areas
(B) preventing illegal felling in notified forest areas
(C) regulating non-forest use of recorded forest areas
(D) None of the above
 
 
5. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year
(A) 1980
(B) 1988
(C) 1972
(D) None of the above
 
 
6. The total number of Schedules in the Wildlife (Protection) Act is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
 
 
7. Under which Section of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, killing of any animal is prohibited?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 17A
(C) Section 29
(D) Section 44
 
8. Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for conservation and sustainable use of
(A) wetlands
(B) hills
(C) evergreen forests
(D) arid regions
 
9. The region, which is defined as an area of uniform climatic conditions and having distinctly recognizable type of vegetation, known as
(A) biodiversity hotspot
(B) phytogeographical region
(C) climatic zone region
(D) seismic zone region
 
10. Out of the following, which one is not a greenhouse gas?
(A) Water vapour H₂O
(B) Methane (CH₂)
(C) Argon (Ar)
(D) Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
 
11. The National Tiger Conservation Authority was made a Statutory Authority during the year
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
 
12. The branch of Zoology concerned with the study of amphibians and reptiles is known as
(A) Herpetology
(B) Anthrozoology
(C) Cetology
(D) Entomology
 
13. The World Wetland Day is celebrated on
(A) 2nd February
(B) 2nd April
(C) 2nd July
(D) 2nd October
 
14. The ecological state of a species being unique to a defined geographic location, such as island, state, country or other defined zone, or habitat type is referred as
(A) Exotic
(B) Indigenous 
(C) Endemism
(D) Rare
 
 
15. The Kyoto Protocol is international treaty adopted 1997 to reduce
(A) deforestation
(B) desertification
(C) greenhouse gas emission
(D) industrialization
 
16. CITES stands for
(A) Conservation of Internationally Threatened Species 
(B) Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of wild fauna and flora
(C) Convention of Internationally Threatened Economic Species
(D) Conservation, Interpretation, Trade of Economically Sustainable Species
 
17. Maximum V content is found in
(A) urea
(B) anhydrous ammonia
(C) sodium nitrate
(D) ammonium sulphate
 
18. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to
(A) high sunlight intensity 
(B) low sunlight intensity
(C) absorption of yellow pigment from soil
(D) deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil
 
19. Arrangement of leaves on branches of plants is known as
(A) Aphyllotaxy
(B) vernation
(C) venation
(D) phytotaxy
 
20. A large ecosystem on land having distinct type of vegetation and wildlife is called as
(A) Ecology
(B) Biome
(C) Biodiversity
(D) Biosphere reserve
 
21. Which of the following forests are found in heavy rainfall areas of Upper Assam? B
(A) Tropical Evergreen
(B) Tropical Deciduous
(C) Mountain Forests
(D) Tidal Forests
 
22. The authority to oversee the matters relating of management of zoos in the country is
(A) Zoo Controlling Authority of India
(B) Central Zoo Authority
(C) Zoo Management Authority of India
(D) None of the above
 
23. The Wildlife (Protection) Act in applicable to
(A) whole of India
(B) whole of India except J&K
(C) whole of India except A&N Islands
(D) None of the above
 
24. National Board of Wildlife is headed by the
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Union Minister of EF & CC 
(C) Secretary to Government of India, MoEFACC
(D) None of the above
 
25. For any piece of land intended to be declared as Wildlife Sanctuary under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, the appointing authority of Collector is
(A) Central Government 
(B) State Government
(C) PCCF&HoFF
(D) None of the above
 
26. Eco-Sensitive Zone of any National Park or Sanctuary is notified under the provisions of the 
(A) Wildlife (Protection) Act
(B) Assam Forest Regulation
(B) Indian Forest Act
(D) None of the above
 
 
27. The Scheduled Tribes Traditional Forest and Other Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is commonly referred as the
(A) Forest Rights Act
(B) Tribal Rights Act
(C) Tribal Land Act
(D) All of the above
 
28. The Forest Rights Act provides to recognise rights over forest lands only to those who had occupied land as on
(A) 15th August, 2006
(B) 31st December, 2006
(C) 13th December, 2005
(D) None of the abo
 
29. The Biological Diversity Act was enacted in the year
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2006
(D) 2008
 
 
30. As per provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, the State Biodiversity Board is prescribed to have a maximum number of members, including Chairman,
(A) 11 
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) None of the above
 
31. The plants that grow on rock are known as
(A) hydrophytes
(B) mesophytes
(C) lithophytes
(D) parasites
 
32. Which one of the following is State Animal of Meghalaya?
(A) Tiger
(B) Serow
(C) Hoolock Gibbon
(D) Clouded Leopard
 
33. The State Tree of Assam is
(A) Dipterocarpus macrocarpus
(B) Mangifera indica
(C) Kayed assamica
(D) Mesua ferrea
 
34. The entire earth, as an ecosystem, is called as
(A) geosphere
(B) hydrosphere
(C) biosphere
(D) lithosphere
 
35. Which of the following plants is known as living fossil?
(A)Kayea assamica
(B) Ginkgo biloba
(C) Magnolia griffithill
(D) Nepenthes khasiana
 
36. Which of the following protected areas of Assam has Golden Langur?
(A) Kaziranga National Park
(B) Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary,
(C) Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Dibra-Saikhown National Park
 
37. Which group of microorganisms has highest biomass in soil?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Actinomycetes
(C) Algal
(D) Fungi
 
38. The One-Hored Rhino falls under which of the following categories of IUCN Red List?
(A) Critically Endangered (CIQ))
(B) Endangered (EN)
(C) Vulnerable (VU)
(D) Near Threatened (NT)
 
39. Which of the following is a strictly herbivorous marine mammal?
(A) Dugong
(B) Gangetic Dolphin
(C) Sea Lion
(D) Whale
40. The Centre for Wildlife Rehabilitation and Conservation in Assam is located at
(A) Banabari, near Manas NP
(B) Panbari, near KNP
(C) Dhola, near Dibru-Saikhowa NP
(D) Gamani, near Nameri NP
 
 
41. Gmelina arborea belongs to the family
(A) Dipterocarpaceae
(B) Papilionacene
(C) Lauraceae
(D) Verbenaceae
 
42. The bambos are a member of group
(A) Trees
(B) Climbers
(C) Grasses
(D) None of the above
 
43. The number of floral species reported to be endemic to Assam by the Botanical Survey of India, an of now, is
(A) 88
(B) 95
(C) 102
(D) 110
 
44. What is the proportion of recorded forents to geographical area of India?
(A) 33%
(B) 23-57%
(C) 30-33%
(D) None of the above
 
45. Based on classification developed by Wildlife Institute of India, the number of Biogeographic Zones in the country is
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 20
(D) 12
 
46. The State Bird of Assam
(A) Parrot
(B) White-winged Wood Duck
(C) Bengal Florican
(D) Hornbill
 

47. The State Flower of Assam is
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Sonaru
(D) Fox-tailed Orchid
 
48. The number of National Parks in Assam is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
 
49. The number of Tiger Reserve in Assam is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
 
50. The population of elephants, as per the Elephant Census, 2017, in Assam is
(A) 5353
(B) 4917
(C) 5719
(D) 5900
 

 

Previous Years Questions

APSC Forest Ranger (Assam Forest Service) Exam Previous years Question Paper

APSC Forest Ranger (Assam Forest Service) Exam Previous years Question Paper

APSC Forest Ranger Assam Forest Service assamexam

APSC regularly conduct selection exam for the post of Forest Ranger under Assam Forest Service. Previous years Old questions which were asked in the exam are given below:

Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2022 – General Knowledge (GK) paper Solved/Answer Key

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2022 – Botany Question Paper

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2022 – Forestry Question Paper

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2022 – English Question Paper

 

ADRE 2023 Test Series Assamexam

Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – General Knowledge (GK) paper

Detailed Analysis – Forest Ranger 2019 GK Paper

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry Qs Paper (Q1 – Q50)

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Forestry Qs Paper (Q51 – Q100)

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Environmental Science Paper

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – English Paper

Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2014 – General Knowledge (GK) paper

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2014 – Environmental Science Paper

APSC Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – English Paper

APSC Assam Forest Ranger Exam 2019 - English Paper 
 
 
 
Full Marks: 100                                                                      Time: 3 hours
 
The figures in the margin indicate full marks for the questions
 
1. Write an essay on any one of the following: 60
 
(a) The importance of clean and green energy possibilities and limitations.
 
(b) River Erosion Risk Management and the challenge of rehabilitating people.
 
(c) Farmers and their role in conservation of ecosystem.
 
(d) Man-Elephant conflict in the context of the pressures of a burgeoning human population.

 
2. Write a précis of the following passage and add a suitable title to it : 30
 
In the past 10 years, India’s environmental movement has had a rebirth. It was first born in the 1970s, when the industrialized world saw the impact of growth on its environment. In that decade, the air and rivers of London, Tokyo and New York were full of toxins. The world was learning the pain of pollution. The first major global conference on the environment, the Stockholm Meet, was held to find ways to deal with this growing scourge. India’s key pieces of environmental legislation were enacted in this period-the Water Pollution Act of 1974 and the Air Pollution Act of 1981. But we were innocent in the world of pollution. We had not yet witnessed the intensification of growth that would, in turn, destroy our environment. It was also in the 1970s that second environmental challenge-issues of access and sustainable management of natural resources emerged. In the remote Himalayas, the women had prevented the timber merchant from cutting their forest. But their movement was not to protect the forest. Their movement or fight was to assert their right to the resources of the forest. It was an environmental movement because the women of this village in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand knew that they had to protect the forest to protect their livelihood. It was a call to redefine development and growth.
 
But now these two sides the environmental challenge have truly come home to India. Importantly, this is now time when environmental issues have taken centre stage in the country. Yet matters are going from bad to worse. The pollution in our rivers is worse today than it was three decades ago. The garbage in cities is growing by the day, even as governments scramble to find ways of reducing plastic and hiding the rest in landfills in far-off places. Air pollution in cities is worse, and toxins are damaging our lungs. This is, in spite of efforts, to contain the problem. We have invested in building sewage treatment plants to deal with water pollution. We have improved the quality of fuel that run our vehicles; changed emission standards and set up institutions to regulate industrial emissions. But still we find we canne! catch up in this game of growth and its toxic fallout. In this decade as well, the struggles for the control over resources have intensified. In every nook and corner of the country where land is acquired or water is sourced for industry, people are fighting even to death. There are a million pollution mutinies happening. The fact is that in India a large number of people and it is indeed a large number-depend on the land, the forests and the water around them for their livelihood. They know that once these resources are gone or degraded their survival will be at stake.
 
We must recognise that across the world, the environmental movement is based on the idea that people do not want anything bad in their vicinity: not in my backyard or NIMBY. Ordinary people, but with power because they are part of the voting middle class, take up these issues because they affect their lives. The fight is personal. It is another matter that their fight has national policy ramifications, often for the better. But there is also a downside to NIMBY: if it is not in my backyard, then whose backyard should it be? This is not an issue that is asked or answered. But it must be.
 
When India-as the urban across and middle-class the world-faces an environmental threat it does not stop to ask in whose backyard it should be allowed. The fact is that garbage is produced because of our consumption. The richer we get, the more waste we generate and the more we pollute. This consumption is necessary because it is linked to the economic growth model we have decided to adopt. But we forget that the more we consume, the higher the cost of collection and disposal of waste which we cannot afford. So, we look for band-aid solutions. In middle-class environmentalism there is no appetite for changing lifestyles that will minimise waste and pollution.
 
The western environmental movement began after societies there had acquired wealth. The movement was a response to the mounting garbage, toxic air and polluted water resulting from the growth of their economies. They had the money to invest in cleaning and accordingly they did. But as they never looked for big solutions, they always stayed behind the problem-local air pollution is still a problem in most western cities, even if the air is not as black as ours. It is just that the toxins are smaller, more difficult to detect or smell. In India, we want to emulate the disastrous ways of the already rich, with much lesser resources and much more inequity and poverty. The fact is that we cannot find answers in the same half-solutions they invested in. This is the biggest challenge of India’s environmental movement. We can do things differently to reinvent growth without pollution. But only if we have the courage to think differently, I hope we will.
 
3. Write in your own words (in about 100-150 words) a paragraph on any one of the following: 10
 
(a) People’s involvement in environmental problem
 
(b) Cleaning our rivers a long-term solution 
 
(c) The role of the Forest Ranger in Assam
 
 

APSC Assam Forest Rangers Test Series 2022 – General Knowledge (GK) Paper

APSC Assam Forest Rangers Test Series 2022 – General Knowledge (GK) Paper

Forest Rangers Test Series 2022 (GK Paper) | Test Brochure PDF

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Program Objective

Among the Four Papers of Written Test for Assam Forest Rangers, General Knowledge Paper is very crucial and needs special attention, because it covers vast areas of General Studies (but very high scoring if you know what is important and what is not) and it’s common paper for all. English paper is of subjective nature and other two Optional subject papers are very specific and will only depend upon candidate’s subject knowledge. See Exam Format details here

Program Approach

  • Test Series cover all topics of General Knowledge (GK) Paper in 8 Full-length Tests.
  • Tests will be delivered in both Online Test mode and PDF format.
  • Answer Keys/Solution PDF will be mailed to participants.
  • Tests act both as learning resources and an opportunity to gauge level of your exam preparedness at regular intervals.
  • Limited study materials will be uploaded in website assamexam.com
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TEST SYLLABUS SPLIT-UP

Test No. Units/Sections
1

Geography of India & Assam AND Environment & Ecology

2

History of India & Assam AND Art and Culture of India & Assam

3

Economy of India & Assam AND Polity of India & Assam

4

Science & Tech, General Aptitude, Current Affairs of India & Assam, India State of Forest Report, Union Budget, Assam Budget, Economic Survey, important reports

5

Geography of India & Assam AND Environment & Ecology

6

History of India & Assam, Art and Culture of India & Assam, Economy of India & Assam AND Polity of India & Assam

7

Science & Tech, General Aptitude, Current Affairs of India & Assam, India State of Forest Report, Union Budget, Assam Budget, Economic Survey, important reports

8

Full Mock Test

NOTE : Adhikary Education Reserves the rights to change dates, patterns and no. of Tests, without any prior notice.


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SALIENT FEATURES

  • APSC Forest Ranger Test Series 2022 – GK Paper contains in total 8 Full length
  • Tests extensively covering all the topics of General Knowledge (GK) Paper
  • 7 Sectional Tests covering all the sections + 1 Full Length Mock Tests at the end of the course, to complete your preparation for the paper.
  • Aspirants can join any time and will be able to attempt all the previous tests.
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To join go to APSC Forest Ranger Test Series 2022 – GK Paper. Have a Query/ Doubt? – Call us at 6380945893 or mailto: [email protected].     AssamExam.com | Adhikary Education

Study Materials & Notes | Assam Current Affairs | Assam Current Affairs Quiz 


 

 

Previous Year APSC Assam Forest Ranger Questions

 

Assam Forest Rangers -Syllabus, Preparation and Study Materials

APSC Forest Ranger Recruitment 2022 – 50 Posts

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – Environmental Science optional Question Paper with Answers

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 


Environmental Science optional Question Paper – with 
Answers

Download PDF

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

Q1. Which pair of the Global Environment serve as an interacting sphere for the circulation of water and nutrient?

Ans. (B) Hydrosphere

Q2. Which of the following are the highly variable constituents of air in the lower atmosphere?

Ans. (A) Water vapour and oxygen

Q3. Which layer of the atmosphere is dry and ozone rich?

Ans. (B) Stratosphere

Q4. Choose the correct statement

Ans. (A) The base of the stratosphere is cooler over the equator than over the poles.

Q5. Which instrument is used for measuring humidity in air?

Ans. (D) Hygrometer

Q6. The scale used for measuring wind velocity?

Ans. (C) Beaufort scale

Q7. Freshwater available for human use in the form of surface water and ground water is about

Ans. (B) 0.003%

Q8. Which of the following rivers has the largest annual discharge?

Ans. (C) Amazon

Q9. On the average, how much thick is the earth crust?

Ans. (C) 40 Km

Q10. Laterite soils
(A) are red in colour
(B) are formed in tropical climates
(C) Often contain high concentration of aluminium
(D) All of the above

Q11. Which of the following pairs of biomes is the most similar with regard to precipitation?

Ans. (B) Tundra and Desert

Q12. Identify the wrong statement

Ans. (B) Rainfall gradient is more in the boundary between two biomes.

Q13. In which of the following biomes animals use metabolic water and excrete highly concentrated urine?

Ans. (B) Desert

Q14. Which of the following biomes has the richest biodiversity with relatively thin and nutrient poor soil?

Ans. (C) Tropical rainforest

Q15. How many different biogeographical zones are there in India?

Ans. (D) 10

Q16. Ecosystem homeostasis is affected by

Ans. (B) The abiotic factors of environment.

Q17. Graphical representation of tropic structure and function of an ecosystem is known as

Ans. (C) Ecological Pyramid

Q18. Energy contents in higher tropic levels are

Ans. (A) Less than lower tropic levels

Q19. Stability of a complex ecosystem such as rainforest can be assessed on the basis of

Ans. (B) Species diversity

Q20. A mature ecosystem is characterised with

Ans. (C) Low nutrient productivity with closed nutrient cycle and good nutrient conservation.

Q21. How many phases are there in the biogeochemical cycles?

Ans. (A) Two

Q22. Which of the following cycles belongs to sedimentary cycles?

Ans. (B) Phosphorous cycle

Q23. Climax stable grassland ecosystems are the characteristics of

Ans. (A) Tropical zone

Q24. Which of the following ecosystems is used by migratory birds as seasonal homes

Ans. (A) Wetland

Q25. In which of the following zones fresh water lake fishes can survive but depend upon two other zones for food?

Ans. (A) Littoral zone

Q26. Which of the following states has the largest amount of total replenishable ground water resources (in km2/year)?

Ans. (B) Uttar Pradesh

Q27. Which of the following States has the highest coverage of very dense forest?

Ans. (D) Kerala

Q28. The total no. of National Parks in India as on 2018 is

Ans. (C) 100
Explanation: Actually it is 99.(http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Protected_Area_854.aspx)

Q29. The construction of solar cooker is based on the principle of

Ans. (B) Concentration of solar heat energy

Q30. In which of the following electricity generation processes water is used as boiler liquid?

Ans. (B) Geothermal energy conservation

Q31. Which of the following arrangement of States in terms of estimated wind power potential at 50 metre height is in descending order?

Ans. (A) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha

Q32. From both Global and regional perspectives, which of the following types of pollution has more significance?

Ans. (A) Air pollution

Q33. Which of the following groups of chemical species in the atmosphere is of the long-live (more than 1 year)?

Ans. (B) N2O, CH4, CH3Br

Q34. Which of the following air pollutants cause curling of leaves of plants?

Ans. (D) NO2 and particulates

Q35. Which of the following on inhalation dissolves in the blood haemoglobin?

Ans. (D) Nitrous Oxide

Q36. Under what condition is the atmosphere inherently unstable?

Ans. (C) when the environment lapse rate is between the moist and dry adiabatic rate

Q37. Which of the following is not a common source of dissolved solids in surface water?

Ans. (B) Forestry runoff

Q38. Which of the following statement is correct?

Ans. (A) BOD is inversely proportional to DO

Q39. A lake usually with brown water, full of soil particles and having low food value is called

Ans. (A) Dystrophic lake

Q40. Acid rain is defined as the rain water having pH value

Ans. (D) None of the above
Explain: Unpolluted rain would have a pH value of between 5 and 6. Acid rain has a pH of 5.0 or less.

Q41. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by

Ans. (B) TOD>COD>BOD

Q42. The saturation value of dissolved oxygen (DO) depending on temperature and salinity of water is in the range of

Ans. (D) 8-15 mg/L

Q43. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted water at normal temperature is found to be of the order of

Ans. (B) 10 mg/L

Q44. The minimum recommended (by EPA) amount of dissolved oxygen for warm water fishes is

Ans. (B) 4 ppm

Q45. The process of killing micro-organism in water is called

Ans. (C) Disinfection

Q46. The pathogens in waste water can be killed by

Ans. (B) Chlorination

Q47. The lowest limit of water availability in soil is known as

Ans. (D) wilting point

Q48. Which of the following processes is best suited for reclaiming polluted soil?

Ans. (A) Phytoremediation

Q49. Sanitary landfill is associated with

Ans. (C) Solid waste disposal

Q50. Solid waste management is best conducted by
(A) Dumping
(B) Sanitary landfill
(C) 3 R principle
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Q51. The sound level of normal conversation is

Ans. (D) 60 dB

Q52. Environmental pollution caused by the discharge of water from a cooling tower of a nuclear power plant is known as

Ans. (C) Thermal pollution [Doubt; Radiation pollution]

Q53. The heated effluents discharged into river have

Ans. (C) reduced DO level

Q54. Which of the following organism are the first to be adversely affected by thermal pollution of a stream?

Ans. (A) insect larvae is the water

Q55. The biggest radiation hazard comes from

Ans. (A) cosmic rays

Q56. Which of the following devices is the most effective in trapping air pollution released through stack of a coal fire power?

Ans. (C) Electrostatic Precipitator

Q57. Which of the following water pollutants does not require AAS for it’s determination in the laboratory?

Ans. (D) Chromium

Q58. Algal growth in an aquatic ecosystem can be controlled by reducing the supply of

Ans. (A) limited nutrient

Q59. Excessive use of fertilizer in a firm land causes

Ans. (C) Micro-nutrient imbalance

Q60. Which is the most serious long-term effect of deforestation?

Ans. (B) Extinction of species

Q61. Acid mine drainage is problem associated with

Ans. (B) Surface mining (quarry)

Q62. In which of the following practices occupational health-hazard is the highest?

Ans. (D) Under-ground mining

Q63. Which type of coal mining creates maximum environmental damages?

Ans. (D) Deep underground mining

Q64. ‘Ring of fire’ refers to the

Ans. (A) Volcaninc belt around the Pacific Ocean

Q65. What kind of deformation leads to the Earthquake?

Ans. (B) Convergent deformation

Q66. Which of the following waves cause most damages during an Earthquake?

Ans. (D) Surface waves

Q67. Green house gases absorb

Ans. (B) Terrestrial radiation

Q68. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of Global warming?

Ans. (C) decreased rate of photosynthesis of vegetation

Q69. Which of the following is known as total protected area?

Ans. (A) National Park

Q70. Desertification is assessed on the basis of the

Ans. (B) decrease of soil moisture

Q71. Which of the following plants are suitable for bio-monitoring of SO2?

Ans. (C) Moss and lichens

Q72. Standard EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetraacetic Acid) Solution is used to determine

Ans. (B) Hardness of water

Q73. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milligrams per litre in terms of equivalent

Ans. Calcium carbonate

Q74. We have seen that the outliers in a dataset can produce problematic results. Rank the following measures in order of ‘least affected by outliers’ to ‘most affected by outliers’.

Ans. (B) Median, mean, range

Q75. What is the range of coefficient of determination R2 ?

Ans. (A) (0,1)

Q76. What test statistics is used in the analysis of variance?

Ans. (B) F-statistics

Q77. A technique of superimposing various thematic maps using digital data on a large number of interrelated aspects is known as

Ans. (A) GIS

Q78. There are many known shortcomings in EIA report. Which is not a known shortcoming?

Ans. (D) All relevant stakeholder’s concerns are incorporated

Q79. Which of the following sequences of typical steps for a project specific EIA process is correct?

Ans. (A) Impact identification – Baseline study – Impact evaluation – Documentation

Q80. The International Conference on Human Environment was held at

Ans. (C) Stockholm in 1972

Q81. Which of the following statement is not correct?

Ans. (D) Nairobi Conference declared June 5 as the World Environment Day

Q82. The Water (Control and Prevention of Pollution) Act was enacted in

Ans. (B) 1974

Q83. Penalty of any of the provisions of Section 2 of the Forest Act 1980 is under

Ans. (A) Section 3A

Q84. In which of the following States the Forest Conservation Act 1980 is not adopted

Ans. (D) Jammu and Kashmir

Q85. Amrita Devi was associated with which of the following movement?

Ans. (B) Bishnoi Movement

Q86. The Appiko Movement was held in

Ans. (A) 1983 in Karnataka

Q87. Which of the following ISO 14000 series of standards deals with environmental performance evaluation guidelines?

Ans. (C) ISO 14031

Q88. Which of the following ISO 140000 series of standards focuses on life cycle assessment, pre-production planning and environmental gold setting?

Ans. (C) 14040

Q89. In 1992, National Commission of Women was started. It launched which of the following programmes?

Ans. (A) Dahej Mukti Abhyan

Q90. World AIDS Day is observed every year in which of the following dates?

Ans. (C) December 1

Q91. Which of the following has the economic value provided by forest resources?

Ans. (A) Fuel wood

Q92. Which is the cause of deforestation?

Ans. (B) Establishment of industries and mining activities.

Explanation: (C) is also correct

Q93. The Cauvery Water Dispute is occurred in between which States?

Ans. (A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

Q94. Which of the following is the Environmental problem created by big dam?

(A) Loss of forest flora and fauna
(B) Displacement of people
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Q95. Who first coined the term ‘ecosystem’?

Ans. (B) AG Tansley, 1935

Q96. Which one is the renewable source of energy?

Ans. (A) Solar energy

Q97. Which are the constituents of abiotic component of environment?

Ans. (A) Soil, light, organic and inorganic material

Q98. Which is the approximate percentage of tropical forest ecosystem?

Ans. (A) 56%

Q99. What is the standard value of pH in the drinking water according to WHO?

Ans. (A) 7-8.5

Q100. Which are the two branches of life sciences helpful in the study of environmental science?

Ans. (C) Zoology and Botany
(two branches of life sciences :P)

Disclaimer: The answer keys and solution given here are found most suitable to us. The correct answer keys will be what APSC decides and may varies from what is given here.

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Previous Years Questions

Forest Ranger Exam 2019 – GK Question Paper and Solution (with Answer Key)

APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019 


General Knowledge (GK) Paper – 
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

Download PDF

Go to APSC Forest Ranger Previous years Questions

Section-wise Qs Analysis – Geography, History, Polity, Science & Tech, Economy, Environment, Aptitude,

Q1. Down to Earth, a science and environment fortnightly is published by the

(C) Centre for Science and Environment

Q2. Ozone layer is found in atmosphere approximately in between

(A) 10km-17km

Explanation: Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17 kilometers) above the Earth’s surface and extends up to about 30 miles (50 kilometers).

Q3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of green product?

(D) Factory products with green colour

Q4. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(D) Botanical Garden

Q5. Find out the largest fraction.

(B) 4/5

Q6. The pattern of drainage of the river Brahmaputra is known as

(A) Braided

Q7. Natural vegetation of Assam is basically

(A) tropical moist deciduous

Q8. The largest area of the Brahmaputra basin falls in the territory of

(C) China

Q9. The average rainfall of Assam is all about

(C) 212cm

Q10. How many bamboo species are available in Assam?

(C) 42

Q11. Which one of the following is not a Tiger Reserve in Assam?

(D) Dibru-Saikhowa

Q12. Which of the following is not an Elephant reserve in Assam?

(B) Pabitara

Q13. The Bhakra Hydroelectric Power Project uses the water of

(B) Sutlej River

Q14. Which of the following countries has the largest reserve of coal?

(A) USA

Q15. Which of the following elements is found in highest quantity in the crust of the earth?

(A) Oxygen

Q16. Name the state that does not have any wind power prospective sites.

(C) Uttar Pradesh

Q17. Which of the following States of India shares boundaries with six other States?

(D) Chhattisgarh

Explanation: The answer is correct considering Telangana and Andhra Pradesh as one. The Question may be old.

Q18. Which one of the following is the smallest State of India in terms of population?

(B) Sikkim

Q19. The fuel having high ignition temperature is

(D) Wood

Q20. Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 was caused by

(C) Methyl isocyanate

Q21. Which of the following is a cold desert?

(D) Gobi

Q22. The Lake Superior, the largest fresh water lake, is located in

(B) The USA

Explanation: Lake Superior is cshared by both Canada and the US. It’s total surface area in 82,000 sq, km (of which 29,000 sq.km in Canada). So, more area in the US. 

Q23. The headquarters of the UNESCO is located in

(D) Paris

Q24. The modern Olympic Games were started in Athens in the year

(B) 1896

Q25. Indian sprinter Hima Das won gold medal in 4x400m relay in the Asian Games held in

(C) Indonesia

Q26. Which one of the following is the cheapest means transport?

(D)  Waterways

Q27. The largest and the busiest inland waterways in the world is

(C) The Great Lakes and the river St. Lawrence in the USA

Q28. Which State in India has the largest forest cover?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

Q29. The White Revolution is associated with the name of

(C) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Q30. Where was the country’s first tourism mart held in September 2018?

(D) New Delhi

Q31. Which one of the following is the first film directed by Dr. Bhupen Hazarika?

(A) Era Bator Sur

Q32. The term ‘bull’ and ‘bear’ are used in the

(B) Stock Exchange

Q33. The Mahatma Gandhi Setu is on the river

(C) Ganga

Q34. The International puppet festival on October 2017 was hosted by

(A) Kolkata

Q35. Which was the first Indian city to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?

(D) Ahmedabad

Q36. The first Share market in India was established in the city of

(B) Mumbai

Q37. The ‘Digital India’ Programme was launched in

(B) July 2015

Q38. What is the national flower of India?

(B) Lotus

Q39. What is the national bird of India?

(C) The Indian Peacock

Q40. What is the national animal of India?

(D) Royal Bengal Tiger

Q41. A temporary tax levied to obtain revenue is called

(A) Cess

Explanation: Surcharge is an additional charge or tax levied on an existing tax. It is usually permanent in nature.

Cess is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need.

Q42. Common Salt is

(B) Sodium Chloride

Q43. The Shivalik Hills are parts of the mountain range of

(C) Himalaya

Q44. Which one of the following is a fast growing tree?

(C) Eucalyptus

Q45. India’s rank in Global Hunger Index, 2017 is

(A) 100th

Q46. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for

(B) Credit Card

Q47. The communication satellite, which was successfully launched recently is

(A) GSAT-29

Explanation: GSAT-29 launched on 14 November 2018 and GSAT-6Awas launched on March 2018.

Q48. Gender Development Index (GDI) was introduced for the first time in Human Development Report of

(D) 2014

Q49. The Headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is in the city of

(B) Manila

Q50. What is ‘Green Banking’?

(A) Bank Financing on pro-environment projects.

Q51. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in

(A) 2005

Q52.  Which is the first metal used by man?

(B) Copper

Q53. Which of the following planets is known as morning star?

(D)  Venus

Q54. The cold and dense air blowing down the mountain slope during night is known as

(C) Katabatic wind

Q55. Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?

(A) Mercury and Venus

Q56. Which of the following tree in not a softwood variety?

(B) Mahogany

Q57.  Which state of India is the highest producer of natural rubber?

(C) Kerala

Q58. The best conductor of electricity is

(D) Saltwater

Q59. Optic fibres are mainly used for

(A) Communication

Q60. The Olympic Council of Asia has extended recognition to which Indian indigenous sport?

(B) Kho-kho

Q61. Which state Government has decided to rename its capital as ‘Atal Nagar’?

(A) Chhattisgarh

Q62. Which two nations usually conduct combat exercise called ‘Yudh Abhyas’?

(D) India and the USA

Q63. What is the greatest number that will divide 99, 123, and 183 leaving the same remainder in each case?

(A) 12

Solution: Required number=H.C.F. of (123-99), (183-123) and (183-99) = H.C.F. of 24, 60 and 84 = 12

Q64. A shop owner purchased an air conditioner for Rs. 12,000 and sold it for Rs. 15,000. What was the percentage of profit?

(B) 25

Solution: ((15000-12000)/12000)x100 = 25%

Q65. The North Eastern Council was set up in

(B) 1972

Q66. To as astronaut in a spacecraft, the colour of the sky appears

(A) Black

Q67. Lactometer is used for testing

(C) Purity of milk

Q68. Gobar gas contain mainly

(D) Methane

Q69. Solung is a folk festival of the Adi tribe of

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

Q70. Assembly language is

(C) low level programming language

Q71. Who was the author of the first report on ‘State of India’s Environment, 1982’?

(A) Anil Agarwal

Q72. Who is known as the ‘father of the Green Revolution’ in India?

(B) M S Swaminathan

Q73. Elephant Gold was authored by

(C) P D Stracey

Q74. The Fall of a sparrow is the autobiography of

(D) Salim Ali

Q75. The novel, The Glass Palace was written by

(B) Amitav Ghosh

Q76. Ecomark logo of India is a/an

(A) Earthen Pot

Q77. The American Dictionary of the English Langauge was first published in the year

(D) 1828

Q78. The Simla Agreement was signed by India and Pakistan in the year

(B) 1972

Q79. The National Waterway No. 2 connects

(C) Sadiya and Dhubri

Q80. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in located in

(D) Mumbai

Q81. Which two steel plans in India were set up in collaboration with Russia?

(C) Bhilai and Bokaro

Q82. The important centres of iron and steel industry in India are

(B) Bhilai, Durgapur, Burnpur, Jamshedpur and Rourkela

Q83. International Women’s Day is observed on

(B) 8th March

Q84. Asomiya Lorar Mitra was written by

(A) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan

Q85. The Run for Unity Programme was launched on 31.10.2018 as a makr of tribute to

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q86. On 11.22.2018, World Leaders celebrated the first centenary of the end of which great war?

(D) World War I

Q87. What was the capital of the province called ‘Eastern Bengal and Assam’?

(A) Dhaka

Q88. The martyrdom of Kushal Konwar is related to the

(C) Quit India Movement of 1942

Q89. Who among the following was a Governor of Madras?

(A) Bishnuram Medhi

Q90. Nagaland became the 16th state of the Indian Union in the year

(C) 1963

Q91. The first ever Census of India was undertaken in the year

(C) 1872

Q92. What is the total number of States and Union Territories in India at present?

(C) 29, 7

Q93. How many hours before actual polling, the election campaign has to stop in our country?

(D) 48 hours

Q94. The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed on

(B) 24 February 1826

Q95. Find out the course of the Stilwell Road?

(D) Assam, Myanmar, China

Q96. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi during the Viceroyalty of

(B) Lord Handinge

Q97. Untouchability is prohibited by the Constitution of India under the  

(A) Article 17

Q98. The sixth edition of the International Buddhist Conclave, 2018 was held in the city of

(C) New Delhi

Q99. The first Indian Satellite launched in 1975 was

(D) Aryabhata

Q100. Who was the first Woman President of the Indian National Congress?

(A) Annie Besant

Disclaimer: The answer keys and solution given here are found most suitable to us. The correct answer keys will be what APSC decides and may varies from what is given here.

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