APSC Forest Ranger Exam 2019
Environmental Science optional Question Paper – with Answers
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Q1. Which pair of the Global Environment serve as an interacting sphere for the circulation of water and nutrient?
Ans. (B) Hydrosphere
Q2. Which of the following are the highly variable constituents of air in the lower atmosphere?
Ans. (A) Water vapour and oxygen
Q3. Which layer of the atmosphere is dry and ozone rich?
Ans. (B) Stratosphere
Q4. Choose the correct statement
Ans. (A) The base of the stratosphere is cooler over the equator than over the poles.
Q5. Which instrument is used for measuring humidity in air?
Ans. (D) Hygrometer
Q6. The scale used for measuring wind velocity?
Ans. (C) Beaufort scale
Q7. Freshwater available for human use in the form of surface water and ground water is about
Ans. (B) 0.003%
Q8. Which of the following rivers has the largest annual discharge?
Ans. (C) Amazon
Q9. On the average, how much thick is the earth crust?
Ans. (C) 40 Km
Q10. Laterite soils
(A) are red in colour
(B) are formed in tropical climates
(C) Often contain high concentration of aluminium
(D) All of the above
Q11. Which of the following pairs of biomes is the most similar with regard to precipitation?
Ans. (B) Tundra and Desert
Q12. Identify the wrong statement
Ans. (B) Rainfall gradient is more in the boundary between two biomes.
Q13. In which of the following biomes animals use metabolic water and excrete highly concentrated urine?
Ans. (B) Desert
Q14. Which of the following biomes has the richest biodiversity with relatively thin and nutrient poor soil?
Ans. (C) Tropical rainforest
Q15. How many different biogeographical zones are there in India?
Ans. (D) 10
Q16. Ecosystem homeostasis is affected by
Ans. (B) The abiotic factors of environment.
Q17. Graphical representation of tropic structure and function of an ecosystem is known as
Ans. (C) Ecological Pyramid
Q18. Energy contents in higher tropic levels are
Ans. (A) Less than lower tropic levels
Q19. Stability of a complex ecosystem such as rainforest can be assessed on the basis of
Ans. (B) Species diversity
Q20. A mature ecosystem is characterised with
Ans. (C) Low nutrient productivity with closed nutrient cycle and good nutrient conservation.
Q21. How many phases are there in the biogeochemical cycles?
Ans. (A) Two
Q22. Which of the following cycles belongs to sedimentary cycles?
Ans. (B) Phosphorous cycle
Q23. Climax stable grassland ecosystems are the characteristics of
Ans. (A) Tropical zone
Q24. Which of the following ecosystems is used by migratory birds as seasonal homes
Ans. (A) Wetland
Q25. In which of the following zones fresh water lake fishes can survive but depend upon two other zones for food?
Ans. (A) Littoral zone
Q26. Which of the following states has the largest amount of total replenishable ground water resources (in km2/year)?
Ans. (B) Uttar Pradesh
Q27. Which of the following States has the highest coverage of very dense forest?
Ans. (D) Kerala
Q28. The total no. of National Parks in India as on 2018 is
Ans. (C) 100
Explanation: Actually it is 99.(http://www.wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Protected_Area_854.aspx)
Q29. The construction of solar cooker is based on the principle of
Ans. (B) Concentration of solar heat energy
Q30. In which of the following electricity generation processes water is used as boiler liquid?
Ans. (B) Geothermal energy conservation
Q31. Which of the following arrangement of States in terms of estimated wind power potential at 50 metre height is in descending order?
Ans. (A) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha
Q32. From both Global and regional perspectives, which of the following types of pollution has more significance?
Ans. (A) Air pollution
Q33. Which of the following groups of chemical species in the atmosphere is of the long-live (more than 1 year)?
Ans. (B) N2O, CH4, CH3Br
Q34. Which of the following air pollutants cause curling of leaves of plants?
Ans. (D) NO2 and particulates
Q35. Which of the following on inhalation dissolves in the blood haemoglobin?
Ans. (D) Nitrous Oxide
Q36. Under what condition is the atmosphere inherently unstable?
Ans. (C) when the environment lapse rate is between the moist and dry adiabatic rate
Q37. Which of the following is not a common source of dissolved solids in surface water?
Ans. (B) Forestry runoff
Q38. Which of the following statement is correct?
Ans. (A) BOD is inversely proportional to DO
Q39. A lake usually with brown water, full of soil particles and having low food value is called
Ans. (A) Dystrophic lake
Q40. Acid rain is defined as the rain water having pH value
Ans. (D) None of the above
Explain: Unpolluted rain would have a pH value of between 5 and 6. Acid rain has a pH of 5.0 or less.
Q41. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
Ans. (B) TOD>COD>BOD
Q42. The saturation value of dissolved oxygen (DO) depending on temperature and salinity of water is in the range of
Ans. (D) 8-15 mg/L
Q43. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted water at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
Ans. (B) 10 mg/L
Q44. The minimum recommended (by EPA) amount of dissolved oxygen for warm water fishes is
Ans. (B) 4 ppm
Q45. The process of killing micro-organism in water is called
Ans. (C) Disinfection
Q46. The pathogens in waste water can be killed by
Ans. (B) Chlorination
Q47. The lowest limit of water availability in soil is known as
Ans. (D) wilting point
Q48. Which of the following processes is best suited for reclaiming polluted soil?
Ans. (A) Phytoremediation
Q49. Sanitary landfill is associated with
Ans. (C) Solid waste disposal
Q50. Solid waste management is best conducted by
(A) Dumping
(B) Sanitary landfill
(C) 3 R principle
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Q51. The sound level of normal conversation is
Ans. (D) 60 dB
Q52. Environmental pollution caused by the discharge of water from a cooling tower of a nuclear power plant is known as
Ans. (C) Thermal pollution [Doubt; Radiation pollution]
Q53. The heated effluents discharged into river have
Ans. (C) reduced DO level
Q54. Which of the following organism are the first to be adversely affected by thermal pollution of a stream?
Ans. (A) insect larvae is the water
Q55. The biggest radiation hazard comes from
Ans. (A) cosmic rays
Q56. Which of the following devices is the most effective in trapping air pollution released through stack of a coal fire power?
Ans. (C) Electrostatic Precipitator
Q57. Which of the following water pollutants does not require AAS for it’s determination in the laboratory?
Ans. (D) Chromium
Q58. Algal growth in an aquatic ecosystem can be controlled by reducing the supply of
Ans. (A) limited nutrient
Q59. Excessive use of fertilizer in a firm land causes
Ans. (C) Micro-nutrient imbalance
Q60. Which is the most serious long-term effect of deforestation?
Ans. (B) Extinction of species
Q61. Acid mine drainage is problem associated with
Ans. (B) Surface mining (quarry)
Q62. In which of the following practices occupational health-hazard is the highest?
Ans. (D) Under-ground mining
Q63. Which type of coal mining creates maximum environmental damages?
Ans. (D) Deep underground mining
Q64. ‘Ring of fire’ refers to the
Ans. (A) Volcaninc belt around the Pacific Ocean
Q65. What kind of deformation leads to the Earthquake?
Ans. (B) Convergent deformation
Q66. Which of the following waves cause most damages during an Earthquake?
Ans. (D) Surface waves
Q67. Green house gases absorb
Ans. (B) Terrestrial radiation
Q68. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of Global warming?
Ans. (C) decreased rate of photosynthesis of vegetation
Q69. Which of the following is known as total protected area?
Ans. (A) National Park
Q70. Desertification is assessed on the basis of the
Ans. (B) decrease of soil moisture
Q71. Which of the following plants are suitable for bio-monitoring of SO2?
Ans. (C) Moss and lichens
Q72. Standard EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetraacetic Acid) Solution is used to determine
Ans. (B) Hardness of water
Q73. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milligrams per litre in terms of equivalent
Ans. Calcium carbonate
Q74. We have seen that the outliers in a dataset can produce problematic results. Rank the following measures in order of ‘least affected by outliers’ to ‘most affected by outliers’.
Ans. (B) Median, mean, range
Q75. What is the range of coefficient of determination R2 ?
Ans. (A) (0,1)
Q76. What test statistics is used in the analysis of variance?
Ans. (B) F-statistics
Q77. A technique of superimposing various thematic maps using digital data on a large number of interrelated aspects is known as
Ans. (A) GIS
Q78. There are many known shortcomings in EIA report. Which is not a known shortcoming?
Ans. (D) All relevant stakeholder’s concerns are incorporated
Q79. Which of the following sequences of typical steps for a project specific EIA process is correct?
Ans. (A) Impact identification – Baseline study – Impact evaluation – Documentation
Q80. The International Conference on Human Environment was held at
Ans. (C) Stockholm in 1972
Q81. Which of the following statement is not correct?
Ans. (D) Nairobi Conference declared June 5 as the World Environment Day
Q82. The Water (Control and Prevention of Pollution) Act was enacted in
Ans. (B) 1974
Q83. Penalty of any of the provisions of Section 2 of the Forest Act 1980 is under
Ans. (A) Section 3A
Q84. In which of the following States the Forest Conservation Act 1980 is not adopted
Ans. (D) Jammu and Kashmir
Q85. Amrita Devi was associated with which of the following movement?
Ans. (B) Bishnoi Movement
Q86. The Appiko Movement was held in
Ans. (A) 1983 in Karnataka
Q87. Which of the following ISO 14000 series of standards deals with environmental performance evaluation guidelines?
Ans. (C) ISO 14031
Q88. Which of the following ISO 140000 series of standards focuses on life cycle assessment, pre-production planning and environmental gold setting?
Ans. (C) 14040
Q89. In 1992, National Commission of Women was started. It launched which of the following programmes?
Ans. (A) Dahej Mukti Abhyan
Q90. World AIDS Day is observed every year in which of the following dates?
Ans. (C) December 1
Q91. Which of the following has the economic value provided by forest resources?
Ans. (A) Fuel wood
Q92. Which is the cause of deforestation?
Ans. (B) Establishment of industries and mining activities.
Explanation: (C) is also correct
Q93. The Cauvery Water Dispute is occurred in between which States?
Ans. (A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Q94. Which of the following is the Environmental problem created by big dam?
(A) Loss of forest flora and fauna
(B) Displacement of people
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Q95. Who first coined the term ‘ecosystem’?
Ans. (B) AG Tansley, 1935
Q96. Which one is the renewable source of energy?
Ans. (A) Solar energy
Q97. Which are the constituents of abiotic component of environment?
Ans. (A) Soil, light, organic and inorganic material
Q98. Which is the approximate percentage of tropical forest ecosystem?
Ans. (A) 56%
Q99. What is the standard value of pH in the drinking water according to WHO?
Ans. (A) 7-8.5
Q100. Which are the two branches of life sciences helpful in the study of environmental science?
Ans. (C) Zoology and Botany
(two branches of life sciences :P)
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