APSC Prelims 2023 – CSAT General Studies GS-2 Paper 2 Question Paper & Answer Key | Download PDF
APSC Prelim 2023 CSAT GS-2 Question Paper Download PDF
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APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Decision making and Problem solving sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Decision making and Problem solving sections Questions Analysis
Questions from Decision making and Problem solving sections
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Qs order as per Set – D
Q45. You are riding your bike in an isolated stretch of the highway, about 100 m behind ascooterist. Suddenly a car overtakes you, knocks down the scooterist (unfortunately) and tries to flee from the scene. What will you do?
(A) Run away from the scene as quickly as possible to avoid any involvement with the police
(B) Pursue the culprit vehicle at breakneck speed with the intention of thrashing the erring driver
(C) Attend the victim of the accident and call for 108 ambulance service, if required
(D) Wait for other people to arrive at the spot
Q46. You ordered food for 1,000 on a food app and paid online. The delivery boy, after delivering the food packet, suggested that from the next time onward you should order food on cash on delivery mode. Then he would deliver the food at half the actual price. You understand that this is a scam but a win-Win arrangement foryou and the delivery boy at’ the expense of the food delivery app. You will
(A) take advantage Of the situation and go by the suggestion or the food delivery boy
(B) just ignore the suggestion and forget the
(C) highlight the incident in social media platforms tagging the CEO of the food delivery app
(D) give a moral lecture to the delivery boy and ask him not get involved in such scams
Q47. You experienced racial abuse while visiting a foreign country. What will you do?
(A) Move away from the scene
(B) Quarrel with the abuser
(C) Try to become friendly with the abuser
(D) Calmly tell the abuser that what he has done is wrong and that you are going to report the matter to the authority.
Q48. Assam is plagued by recurrent and devastating floods and erosion every year. The large number of rivers and their tributaries carry a huge volume Of water, silt and other debris including carcasses of dead animals. Apart from the misery paused by loss of hearth and homes, water-borne diseases play havoc with their lives. Successive governments have succeeded to a certain extent in solving the problem by building embankments, spurs and other innovative ideas, etc. Many people have put forward a variety of solutions including dredging of the rivers, doing away with all embankments and allowing the river waters to flow freely, raising the height of the homes, shifting people from riverine areas and settling them elsewhere. You would
(A) build dams to reduce the flow of water
(B) do away with all embankments
(C) solve the problem using innovative ideas
(D) shift people from riverine areas
Q49. You and your friend have gone shopping and have purchased jewellery amounting to rupees five lakh from a shop. You request the store manager to give you a rebate considering the fact that you have purchased high value goods at a considerable cost. The store manager offers a discount of one percent, but your friend is outraged by the offer and threatens to leave without buying anything. The store manager is worried and asks her how much rebate she expects and she demands a rebate of at least 10%. The manager says he has to consult his boss. The manager comes back in a few minutes and says he can give the rebate of 10% as desired but in that case would not provide an invoice to the customer. If you were the customer, what would you do?
(A) Accept the manager’s original offer of one percent rebate
(B)’ Advise your friend to pay the bill and not ask for a rebate
(C) Accept the manager’s offer of not providing an invoice
(D) Accept the manager’s offer and then report the matter to the authorities
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APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Interpersonal skills including communication skills sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Interpersonal skills including communication skills sections Questions Analysis
Questions from Interpersonal skills including communication skills sections
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Qs order as per Set – D
Q58. According to Oxford Dictionary, ‘restitution’ means ‘the restoration of something lost or stolen to its proper owner; recompense for injury or loss’. Which of the following situations would be the nearest example of restitution?
(A) Ravi returned the mobile handset he purchased a week ago as the same heated up too high when viewing You?ube videos and claimed replacement with compensation.
(B) David returned the lawn mower he borrowed from Timothy, with a broken blade that cracked upon hitting a rock when David was clearing his yard, and offered to pay for the repair and a new set of blades.
(C) Amelia complained to her neighbour of her place being broken in and burgled, and demanded compensation as she had requested the neighbour to keep an eye on her place over the weekend when she is gone off to the beach.
(D) Satyam returned Gurpreet’s bike that he had borrowed, offered to pay for the quantity of fuel consumed, and small gift as a token of gratitude.
Q67. Identify the incorrect statement/ statements from the following
(i) The word ’emoji’ has its roots in the English word ’emotion’.
(ii) The word ’emoji’ is a blend of two Japanese words for picture and letter.
(iii) Shigetaka Kurita is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.
(iv) Steve Wozniak, one of the founders of Apple, is considered to be the founding father of today’s emojis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (iv)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Only (ii) and (iv)
Q68. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Haptic communication is a form of nonverbal communication.
(B) A handshake is an example of haptics.
(C) Haptic communication is via the sense of touch.
(D) The origin of the word ‘haptic’ is Spanish.
Q69. The capacity to sense other people’s emotion, together with the capacity to imagine what someone else might be feeling, is called
(A) sympathy
(B) understanding
(C) empathy
(D) caring
Q70. Johari Window is
(A) one of the earliest versions of MS Windows
(B) the latest version of MS Windows
(C) the beta version of MS Windows
(D) a framework for understanding conscious and unconscious bias that can help enhance self-awareness and our perceptions on others
Q71. Grapevine communication is
(A) very similar to fiber optics communication
(B) the most sophisticated military communication system, which was recently acquired by India
(C) a method of spreading information, half-truths, gossips, etc., by informal conversation
(D) a process used to brew high quality red wines
Q73. You have shown appreciation for an undesirable gift. This is an example of
(A) white lie
(B) compulsive lie
(C) deceptive lie
(D) black lie
Q74. In social science, oculesics refers to
(A) the study of eye-related nonverbal communication
(B) the study of hand-related nonverbal communication
(C) the study of foot-related nonverbal communication
(D) the study of nose-related nonverbal communication
Q75. MUM effect means
(A) a tendency to remain silent in company of people
(B) a reluctance to reveal negative information
(C) a fear of public speaking
(D) a tendency to prevent other people from speaking
Q76. Identify the correct statement/ statements from -the following
(i) Disfluencies are interruptions in the smooth flow Of speech.
(ii) Prolonged sound like ‘Soooooo cute’ is an example of disfluencies.
(iii) Pausing silently during a speech is an example of disfluencies.
(iv) Repeating words during a speech is an example of disfluencies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q77. Which is the agency of the Union Government of India that disseminates information regarding the government policies and projects to the media in India? [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]
(A) Press Information Bureau (PIB)
(B) Press Trust of India (PH)
(C) All India Radio (AIR)
(D) Press Council of India (PCI)
Q78. Multimedia comprises of
(A) text and audio
(B) video and audio
(C) only video
(D) text, audio and video
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APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – General Mental Ability sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – General Mental Ability sections Questions Analysis
Questions from General Mental Ability sections
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Qs order as per Set – D
Q26. In the figure below, one space is vacant, which has been indicated as ? :
Download PDF to see figure
Q27. Histogram below shows the production per year in thousand units from 2010 to 2020 for a certain company :
Download PDF to see figure
A person studied the histogram and concluded the following .
(i) The company achieved the highest growth in production per year in 2016 for the decade 2011-2020.
(ii) The production per year shows a negative growth in the year 2019 for the decade 2011-2020.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q28. pie diagram below shows the average monthly expenditure of a family. The monthly income of the family is Rs. 50,000.
Consider the following statements
(i) The average monthly expenditure of the family for conveyance is about 10,000.
(ii) The average monthly expenditure of the family for food is about 17,500.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q29. graphs below show the production and sales figures of a company for the decade 2011-2020. The company could sell 2 80% Of its products every year during the decade:
Download PDF to see figure
One may conclude the following :
(i) The company effected a price drop in the year 2015.
(ii) Sales-wise, the worst performing year for the company was 2020.
Now, choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only conclusion (i) is correct
(C) Only conclusion (ii) is correct
(D) Neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) is correct
Q35. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives :
float, hook, line, bait, net,
(A) saw
(B) spade
(C) axe
(D) pond
Q36. Pick up the most appropriate word to fill in the blank from the given alternatives .
Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China, Amur,
(A) Sumatran
(B) Caspian
(C) Bali
(D) Javan
Q37. In the given list below, identify the word which is different from the rest :
inflexible, stubborn, obstinate, acquiescent, rigid, dogged
(A) acquiescent
(B) obstinate
(C) dogged
(D) rigid
Q38. If Cycle pairs with Velodrome, then Boxing will pair with
(A) Arena
(B) Ring
(C) Court
(D) Pitch
Q50. How many triangles can be formed within a regular octagon, where vertices of the octagon are vertices of the triangles, and each triangle can have only one side common with that of the octagon, but none of the sides passes through the centre of the octagon?
(A) 32
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 64
Q51. If the square represents traders, circle represents football lovers and triangle represents women who love football, then which slice represents women who love football, but are not traders?
Download PDF to see figure
(A) C
(B) E
(C) D
(D) There is no such slice
Q52. If Bus is related to Car, then in the same way, River would be related to
(A) Stream
(B) Pond
(C) Lake
(D) Swimming pool
Q61. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. Then A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 8 km
Q62. In a row of 40 students, Saurav is 24th from the left end and Sachin is *6th from the right end. How many students are there between Saurav and Sachin?
(A) 10
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) None of the above
APSC Prelim 2022 GS Paper 1 – Fully solved Answer Key & Detailed Solutions
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Logical reasoning and Analytical ability sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Logical reasoning and Analytical ability sections Questions Analysis
Questions from Logical reasoning and Analytical ability sections
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Qs order as per Set – D
Q18. Consider the following sequence of combinations of three alphabets
LPP, MOO, NNN, OMM
The combination of three alphabets that will come after OMM is
(A) PPP
(B) PXX
(C) PLL
(D) PQQ
Q19. A family consists of six members A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. Now, consider the following statements in respect of the family
- F is the daughter of E, who is a policewoman by profession.
- B is the wife of A.
- D is the daughter of A.
Then which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(i) C is the husband of E.
(ii) C is the son of A.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only (i)
(B) only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Q20. If Angkor Wat pairs with Cambodia, then Kamakhya will pair with
(A) Assam
(B) Nilachal
(C) India
(D) Kamrup
Q21. If Red pairs with Yellow, then Green will pair with
(A) Violet
(B) Blue
(C) Indigo
(D) Orange
Q22. If ‘tiger’ is coded as ‘5regit’, then ‘deer’ will be coded as
(A) 4reed
(B) 5reed
(C) 4regit
(D) 1 regit
Q23. If Rangia is coded as Sbohjb, then Tihu will be coded as
(A) Uijv
(B) UVIJ
(C) Uivj
(D) Ujiv
Q24. From the given, set of numbers below, identify the one which is different from the rest : 7, 13, 17, 19, 106
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 106
(D) All are same in type
Q32. Study the following information.
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six graduate students studying in B. Barua College, Guwahati. They have offered major in six different subjects, viz., Physics, Chemistry, Z0010U, Botany, Ge010U and Political Science.
(ii) Two of them belong to Nagaon, two belong to Dibrugarh and the remaining two are local.
(iii) A and F belong to Nagaon, B belongs to Dibrugarh and C is local.
(iv) D is local and has major in Zoology.
(v) A has major in Chemistry while E’s major subject is Geology.
(vi) One student belonging to Nagaon is an Arts student.
(vii) Students hailing from Dibrugarh have not offered major in Physics.
Now, answer the following question:
Which of the following combinations of students and major subjects is not correct?
(A) A-Chemistry
(B) C-Physics
(C) F-Political Science
(D) B – Geology
Q33. With reference to the Question No. 32 above, what are the major subjects of the two local students?
(A) Physics and Chemistry
(B) Physics and Zoology
(C) Zoology and Botany
(D) Chemistry and Geology
Q34. If the code for CAT is 05-03-22, then the code for DOG will be
(A) 07-12-22
(B) 06-17-09
(C) 11-07-22
(D) 06-11-09
Q41. Nowadays, most of the offices have gone paperless to the extent possible because
(i) a paperless office is environment friendly
(ii) paper is very costly nowadays Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
Q42. The government is encouraging the use of electric vehicles because
(i) fossil fuel will not last forever
(ii) electric vehicles do not ,cause pollution
Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
Q43. Dengue is spreading alarmingly in certain pockets of the city. Therefore
(i)3 fumigation should be carried out in war footing in the affected areas
(ii) residents should be advised to avoid non-vegetarian foods
Choose the correct alternative.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is Correct
Q44. Arrange the following rulers in a meaningful order . [ NOT a CSAT Qs ]
1.Queen Victoria
- SwargadeoRudraSingha
- ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj
- Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar
- Czar Nicholas Il
Choose the correct answer.
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Q53. Consider the following sequence of pairs of alphabets .
AK, BL, DIV, GQ
The pair of alphabets that will come after GQ is
(A) CM
(B) HJ
(C) KL
(D) KU
Q55. The special edition paperback version of Roget’s Thesaurus has 656 printed pages, and all are numbered except the covers. What would be the total number of digits used for page numbering this book?
(A) 1760
(B) 1680
(C) 1860
(D) 1670
Q56. The town clock of Pradoga takes 6 seconds to strike six at 6 0’clock. How much time would it take to strike eleven at 11 0’clock?
(A) 11 seconds
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 14 seconds
(D) 12 seconds
Q79. Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of100 students in four different tests:
Tests Average Marks Range of Marks
I 60 30-90
II 60 45-75
III 70 20-100
IV 80 0-100
If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is his/her performance the best comparatively?
(A) Test 1
(B) Test 11
(C) Test 111
(D) Test IV
Q80. Consider the following sequence of numbers :
11, 14, 19, 26
The number that will come after 26 is
(A) 33
(B) 34
(C) 35
(D) 36
APSC Prelim 2022 GS Paper 1 – Fully solved Answer Key & Detailed Solutions
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Basic numeracy sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Basic numeracy sections Questions Analysis
Questions from Basic numeracy & Maths sections
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Qs order as per Set – D
Q17. By selling an article at ₹ 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at ₹ 360, his gain percentage will be
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
Q25. A school offers Science and Arts courses. 75% of the final year students are in the Science stream. In the final examination, 25% of the Science students and 24 9% of the Arts students of the school obtained first class. The above data have been represented in the figures. In the figures, the upper row is for Science while the lower row is for Arts. The shaded portion represents the % of students securing first class while the bigger rectangle represents the % of Science or Arts students as the case may be :
Choose the correct one from the following alternatives.
(A) Figure (i) depicts the data most accurately
(B) Figure (ii) depicts the data most accurately
(C) Figure (iii) depicts the data most accurately
(D) Figure (iv) depicts the data most accurately
Q39. A man drives a car from A to B with an average speed of 40 kmph and then returns to A by the same route with an average speed of 60 kmph. The average speed of the car for the entire up and down journey in kmph is
(A) 45
(B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 55
Q40. A man walks 6 km to North, then turns right through 900 and walks 8 km. Then he turns South and walks 3 km. Again, he turns right through 900 and walks 4 km and stops. How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 6 km
Q54. In a gift bag, a birthday girl found toffees and lollipops, where toffees were three times in number as compared to lollipops. Which of the following cannot be a total count of goodies in her gift bag?
(A) 44
(B) 48
(C) 42
(D) 52
Q59. In the following two arithmetic operations, the numbers are correct, but the operators are all mixed up, except the ‘=’ sign
(i) 9+5 = 20x 25
(ii) 76 / 60 = 64 – 4
Under this new usage of operators, which of the following operations is valid?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Q63. A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path of 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides. If the path is to be constructed with square marble tiles 10 cm x 10 cm, then find the number of tiles required to cover the path.
(A) 2000
(B) 4000
(C) 8000
(D) None of the above
Q64. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 kmph and a distance of 10 km separates them. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, its speed would be
(A) 45 kmph
(B) 55 kmph
(C) 65 kmph
(D) 75 kmph
Q65. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 m/ s and the speed of the stream is 6 m/ s. If the boat is moving upstream and again downstream, what is the ratio of the time taken to cover a particular stretch of distance in each direction?
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 6 : 1
Q66. The average weight of a class of 15 boys and 10 girls is 384 kg. If the average weight of the boys is 40 kg, then what is the average weight of the girls?
(A) 36.0 kg
(B) 36.5 kg
(C) 35.0 kg
(D) 35.6 kg
APSC Prelim 2022 GS Paper 1 – Fully solved Answer Key & Detailed Solutions
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Comprehension & Passage sections Questions Analysis
APSC Prelim 2022 CSAT Paper (GS-2) – Comprehension & Passage sections Questions Analysis
Questions from Reading Comprehension & Passage sections
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Qs order as per Set – D.
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 1 and 2
The chief gateways to the world of international trade are the ports and harbours. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities for docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo, In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges, and providing labour and managerial services. The importance of a port is judged by the type of cargo and the number of ships handled. The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland. Generally ports are classified according to the types of traffic and the cargo which they handle, like industrial, commercial and comprehensive ports. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as comprehensive ports. Ports are classified on the basis of their location as inland ports and out ports. They are also classified on the basis of specialized functions like oil ports, ports of call, packet stations or ferry ports, entre ports and naval ports.
Q1. The importance of a port is judged by
(A) type of ships handled and size of cargo
(B) quality of cargo and size of ships handled
(C) type of cargo and number of ships handled
(D) quantity of cargo and size of ships handled
Q2. Most of the world’s great ports are classified as
(A) naval ports
(B) commercial ports
(C) industrial ports
(D) comprehensive ports
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 3 and 4
The Wodehouses, like others, were in constant contact with the British Vice-Consul in Boulogne and expected to be alerted by him if it became no longer safe to remain in residence. The warning was never given. As with the others who had continued to live in the area, it seemed that the Wodehouses did not really appreciate the extent of the danger they were in by staying on. On 21st May, the Wodehouses set out in a car chock full of possessions from their house in Le Touquet. After covering only a short distance, the car broke down, having been repaired poorly after a crash some weeks ago. They had not noticed problems with the car as they had been using their other car since then. They set out again, this time in a convoy with their neighbours, who were travelling in a van and a car. The van broke down. By the time it was repaired it, was evening and the party decided to return to Le Touquet. That night the Germans captured the town. Wodehouse was required to report to the German authorities at the town of Paris Plage each day while his wife was required to report once a week. The Germans commandeered the Wodehouse bathroom. This fact and Wodehouse’s comments on it were to spawn various stories proving his support and sympathies for the Germans. The Germans were unwelcome not only for dropping into his house for a bath but also for raiding his larder, taking away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
Q3. Select the correct statement.
(A) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.
(B) The car and the van of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from Le Touquet.
(C) The car of the Wodehouses and the van of their neighbours broke down on their way back from Le Touquet.
(D) The van of the neighbours of the Wodehouses broke down on their way from Le Touquet.
Q4. Which of the following is correct about the Germans?
(A) They occupied the house of the Wodehouses, used their bath and raided their larder,
(B) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycle, radio and tobacco,
(C) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their car, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
(D) They used their bath, raided their larder and took away their cars, bicycles, radio and tobacco.
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 5 and 6
Hobbies help us grow as a person. The best way to have a hobby is to try something new. All of us are unique and this is the reason why our hobbies and interests are different. Once we find an activity we are passionate about we can explore that activity. When you get hooked, you will realize that your hobby has become an integral part of your life. Having a hobby that we enjoy brings us joy and refreshes us. Hobbies help us to manage our leisure and unplanned time more productively. It also affords you the opportunity to learn new skills in your work. The journey of experiencing your hobby is rewarding in itself. With the exposure to different types of activities these days, it does not matter which activity you choose-pursuing a craft, sports, puzzles or skill development-your hobby should be your diversion and passion.
Q5. On the basis of you+ -reading of the above passage, the option that is clearly the synonym of ‘hooked’ is
(A) opposed
(B) captivated
(C) indifferent
(D) willing
Q6. No matter what activity you are pursuing your hobby should be
(A) useful to you
(B) a skill that helps you
(C) a diversion and a passion
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 7 and 8
Mountains have always been held in great awe by mankind. They have been a challenge to humans. Those brave among us have always wanted to conquer them. You see, the more incredible the mountains, the greater the thrill-a challenge to the bravery of the human race. Climbing mountains is an experience that is hard to put into words. Mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular adventure sports, along with being challenging and risky for the climber. Without any perceived risk there cannot be a feeling that any significant challenge has been surmounted. The enthusiasts must develop in themselves the spirit of adventure, willingness to undertake hardships and risks, extraordinary power of perseverance, endurance and keenness of purpose before climbing a mountain. Up there where the intention is to embrace nature’s wonder, one realizes that it cannot be done without facing its formidable glory. A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.
Q7. Why does the writer say that mountains inspire awe in humans?
(A) They present us with opportunities for exciting sports.
(B) They evoke a wish in us to conquer them.
(C) They inspire in us deeds of valour.
(D) They represent a challenge to us.
Q8. Select the reason the mountaineer is respectful to the forces of nature when up in the mountains.
(A) Survival
(B) Fear (C) Tradition
(D) Power
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 9 and 10
Evolution has designed the vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat flesh. However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle, processing the dead bodies of animals. Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures-flocks so enormous they darkened the skies. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9% of India’s vultures were gone. It was finally discovered that they had been killed by a drug called Diclofenac. Indians revere their cows and when a cow shows signs of pain, they treat it with the pain reliever Diclofenac. After the animal died, the vultures would eat the carcass, though the vultures boast of one of the world’s most efficient digestive systems they cannot digest Diclofenac. Sometimes vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predatory carnivores. India banned the use of Diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it is still widely used. The near extinction of vultures has caused diseases in the country as rats and dogs moved in to take their place-spreading pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures.
Q9. What does the phrase ‘moved in to take their place’ mean?
(A) Contributed to the task
(B) Helped them
(C) Replaced them
(D) Removed them
Q10. On the basis of the above passage, which of the following can be inferred as the major cause of the death of vultures?
(A) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill them.
(B) They feed on carcasses laced with poison intended to kill jackals and other predators.
(C) They eat carcasses laced with Diclofenac.
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 11 and 12
The movement for the right to information is one of the few recent examples of a movement that did succeed in getting the state to accept its major demands. The movement started in 1990 when a mass-based organization called Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan in Rajasthan took the initiative in demanding records of famine relief work and accounts of labourers. In 2004, the RTI Bill was tabled and received presidential assent in June 2005. The demand was raised in Bhim Tehsil, a very remote and backward region. The villagers asserted their right by asking for copies of bills and vouchers and names of persons on muster rolls who had been paid wages. “In ‘1996, the MKSS formed the National Council for People’s Right to Information. Prior to that, the Consumer Education and Research Centre, the Press Council of India and the Shourie Committee had proposed a draft RTI law. In 2002, a weak Freedom of Information Act was legislated but never came into force.
Q11. RTI means
(A) Right to Investigation
(B) Right to Intimation
(C) Right to Interference
(D) Right to Information
Q12. The RTI Bill was tabled in
(A) 1996
(B) 2002
(C) 2004
(D) 2005
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 13 and 14
The Antarctica continental region extends over 14 million square kilometres and comprises 26% of the world’s wilderness area, representing 90% of all the territorial ice and 70% of planetary freshwater. The Antarctica also extends to a further 36 million square kilometres of ocean. It has limited terrestrial life and a highly productive marine ecosystem, comprising of a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds as well as krill which is central to marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent. The Antarctica plays an important role in maintaining climatic equilibrium and deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentration and atmospheric temperatures of hundreds and thousands of years ago. Who owns this coldest, farthest and windiest continent on the globe? There are two claims about it. Some countries like UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France and New Zealand have made legal claims to sovereign rights over it. Most other states have taken the opposite view that it is part of the global commons and not subject to the executive jurisdiction of any state. The Arctic and Antarctic polar regions are subjected to special regional rules of environment protection.
Q13. The above passage tells us that the highly productive marine ecosystem comprises of
(A) a few plants, marine animals, fish and hordes of birds
(B) a few plants, marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds
(C) plants, marine mammals, hordes of fish and birds
(D) plants, mammals, fish and hordes of birds
Q14. The Arctic polar region is owned by
(A) Argentina, China, Norway, France, New Zealand and UK
(B) UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, Australia, France and Greenland
(C) Chile, Argentina, China, Norway, France and New Zealand
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 and 16
Janardhan works in a call centre. He leaves late in the evening for work, becomes John when he enters the office, acquires a new accent and speaks a different language to communicate with his clients, who are living thousands of miles away. He works all night which is actually daytime for his overseas customers. Janardhan is rendering service to somebody, who in all probability, he is never likely to meet physically. Ramdhari has gone shopping to buy a birthday gift for his nine-year-old daughter. He has promised her a small cycle and decided to search the market for something he can afford as well as of reasonable quality. He finally buys a cycle, which is actually manufactured in China but is being marketed in India. It meets his requirements of quality and affordability. Last year he had, on his daughter’s insistence, bought her a Barbie doll, which was originally manufactured in the US and was being sold in India. Sarika is a first generation learner who has done remarkably well throughout her school and college life by working very hard. She now has an opportunity to take up a job and begin an independent career which the women in her family had never dreamt of earlier. While some of her relatives are opposed to her decision, she goes ahead because of the new opportunities that have been made available to her generation.
Q15. The examples in the passage illustrate
(A) globalization of services
(B) conflict of values
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Q16. Sarika’s decision reflects a conflict of values originating from
(A) a new opportunity that was available to the women in her family
(B) an unacceptable new opportunity that was available to the women in her family
(C) a new opportunity that was not available to the women in her family
(D) None of the above
Q30. Study the passage below:
The introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a very significant step in the field of indirect tax reforms in India. By amalgamating a large number of Central and State taxes into a single tax, GST will mitigate ill effects of cascading or double taxation in a major way and pave the way for a common national market. From the consumers point of view, the biggest advantage would be in terms of reduction in the overall tax burden on goods, which is currently estimated to be around 25%-30%. It would also imply that the actual burden of indirect taxes on goods and services would be much more transparent to the consumer. Introduction of GST would also make Indian products competitive in the domestic and international markets owing to the full neutralization of input taxes across the value chain of production and distribution. Studies show that this would have impact on economic growth. Last but not the least, this tax, because of its transparent and self-policing character, would be easier to administer. It would also encourage a shift from the informal to formal economy.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made.
(i) Introduction of GST is a paradigm shift from the earlier tax regime.
(ii) GST subsumed all indirect taxes in India.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(A) Assumption (i) only
(B) Assumption (ii) only
(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)
Q31. Study the passage below:
The new education policy must provide to all students, irrespective of their place of residence, a quality education system, with particular focus on historically marginalized, disadvantaged, and underrepresented groups. Education is a great leveler and is the best tool for achieving economic and social mobility, inclusion, and equality. Initiatives must be in place to ensure that all students from such groups, despite inherent obstacles, are provided various targeted opportunities to enter and excel in the educational system.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
(i) One of the cornerstones of the new education policy is inclusion.
(ii) The new education policy advocates quality education.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(A) Assumption (i) only
(B) Assumption (ii) only
(C) Both assumptions (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither assumption (i) nor assumption (ii)
Q57. Feynman made sure that the radiation exposure of the inner chamber is within tolerance limits. Opening the heavy door to the scrubbing chamber, he walked in and donned a sterile gown after the door closed behind him. Feynman sat on the scrubbing bench in the sealed chamber while the air would be cleaned by the scrubber unit. After six minutes, an inner door opened. As he walked into the inner chamber and touched the object, Feynman felt a wave of excitement washing over him. On the workbench lies the object which has the capacity of replicating and unleashing power comparable to that of the sun, albeit on a much smaller scale.
Based on the paragraph above, identify which of the following statements is best acceptable.
(A) To enter the inner chamber, one has to wait for not less than six minutes in the scrubbing chamber.
(B) The atom bomb was created by a team of which Feynman was a member.
(C) Feynman was all alone in the inner chamber when he touched the object.
(D) The Laser (gun) was designed and developed in a laboratory where Feynman worked.
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Important MCQ Questions on Rankings & Awards for APSC, ADRE, Assam Govt Exams
Important MCQ Questions on Rankings & Awards for APSC, ADRE & Govt Job Exams
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Important MCQ Questions on Awards/Prizes
Q1. Who among the following has won the Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia Award 2022?
- Pranjal Saikia
- Tanuj Borah
- Arun Nath
- Mousumi Lekharu
C. Arun Nath
Q2. Consider the following statements, with regard to Assam Valley Literary Award:
- The award was instituted by the Williamson Magor Group, a tea company.
- It is given to creative writers who have enhanced Assamese literature.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- I only
- II only
- I and II
- None of the above
C. I and II
- The Assam Valley Literary Award was conceived in the year 1990 by Williamson Magor Education Trust to honour creative writers who have enhanced Assamese literature.
- It is given to writers of Assam once a year. The award was instituted by the Williamson Magor Group, a tea company.
- The first recipient of the Assam Valley Literary Award was prominent Assamese writer, filmmaker and social worker Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia.
- In 2017, Sananta Tanty, Yeshe Dorjee Thongchi, Dr. Rita Chowdhury received this award.
Q3. Who among the following has received the Nobel Prize 2022 in literature?
- Kailash Satyarthi
- Angela Merkel
- Jacinda Ardern
- Annie Ernaux
D. Annie Ernaux
Annie Ernaux received the Nobel Prize 2022 in literature for the bravery and clinical acuity with which she reveals the origins, estrangements, and collective restrictions of personal memory.
Q4. Who among the following has received the Nobel prize 2022 in Chemistry
- Carolyn Bertozzi, Barry Sharpless and Douglas W. Diamond
- Alain Aspect, John F Clauser and Anton Zeilinger
- Ben S. Bernanke, Morten Meldal and Philip H. Dybvig
- Morten Meldal, Carolyn Bertozzi and Barry Sharpless
D. Morten Meldal, Carolyn Bertozzi and Barry Sharpless
Q5. Who among the following has won the Booker Prize 2022 for his novel “The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida”, ?
- Shehan Karunatilaka
- Bernardine Evaristo
- Geetanjali Shree
- Daisy Rockwell
A. Shehan Karunatilaka
Q6. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2022 was awarded to whom?
- Achanta Sharath Kamal
- Pullela Gopichand
- Kapil Dev
- Narain Karthikeyan
A. Achanta Sharath Kamal
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2022 awarded to the Table Tennis player Achanta Sharath Kamal.
Q7. Who has won SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2022?
- Manjul Bhargava
- Akshay Venkatesh
- Yunqing Tang
- Kathrin Bringmann
C. Yunqing Tang
The SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2022 was awarded to Yunqing Tang, Assistant Professor at the University of California, Berkeley, USA.
Q8. Who has been awarded the 2022 UNESCO Peace Prize for her efforts to welcome refugees?
- Kailash Satyarthi
- Angela Merkel
- Jacinda Ardern
- Sanna Marin
B. Angela Merkel
Q9. Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for the year 2022 was awarded to
- Svante Paabo
- Douglas W. Diamond
- John F Clauser
- Barry Sharpless
A. Svante Paabo
Svante Paabo received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his research on the extinct hominid genomes and the evolution of humans.
Q10. Who among the following has received the Nobel prize 2022 in Chemistry
- Carolyn Bertozzi, Barry Sharpless and Douglas W. Diamond
- Alain Aspect, John F Clauser and Anton Zeilinger
- Ben S. Bernanke, Morten Meldal and Philip H. Dybvig
- Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten Meldal and Barry Sharpless
D. Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and Barry Sharpless
Carolyn Bertozzi Morten Meldal Barry Sharpless won the Nobel prize in Chemistry For the establishment of the foundations of click chemistry & bioorthogonal chemistry and also took chemistry into the functionalism era.
Download PDF – MCQ Questions on Awards & Rankings
Q11. Who received the 2022 World Food Prize from the World Food Prize Foundation?
- Cynthia Rosenzweig
- Rattan Lal
- Fazle Hasan Abed
- Sanjaya Rajaram
A. Cynthia Rosenzweig
Cynthia Rosenzweig, a senior research scientist at NASA’s Goddard Institute for Space Studies (GISS), received the 2022 World Food Prize from the World Food Prize Foundation. World Food Prize is a prestigious award conceived as the ‘Nobel Prize for Food and Agriculture’. Rosenzweig was selected for the award for her research to understand the relationship between climate and food systems and forecast how they will change in the future.
Q12. Who among the following from Assam has been selected for the prestigious Arjuna Award 2022?
- Hima Das
- Lovlina Borgohain
- Nayanmoni Saikia
- Mirabai Chanu
C. Nayanmoni Saikia
- Assam’s Nayanmoni Saikia was conferred with the Arjuna Award at Rashtrapati Bhawan by President Draupadi Murmu.
- Nayanmoni Saikia was nominated for the award for her achievements in Lawn Bowl.
- Apart from Nayanmoni Saikia, Shushila Devi from Manipur was also presented with the prestigious award for her remarkable contributions and achievements in the field of boxing.
Q13. Who among the following has been awarded with Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards 2021 in the Land Adventure category?
- Arunima Singha
- Arun Vajpai
- Ms. Naina Dhakad
- Debabrata Mukherjee
C. Ms. Naina Dhakad
- The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India announced “Tenzing Norgay Adventure Award” (TNNAA) for the year 2021.
- The award is given in four categories which are Land Adventure, Water Adventure, Air Adventure, and Life Time Achievement.
- Ms. Naina Dhakad in the Land Adventure category.
- Shri Shubham Dhananjay Vanmali in the Water Adventure category.
- Group Captain Kunwar Bhawani Singh Samyal in the Life Time Achievement category.
Q14. Who won the 21st Grand Slam and 7th Wimbledon title?
- Novak Djokovic
- Roger Federer
- Andy Murray
- Rafeal Nadal
A. Novak Djokovic
Q15. Who became the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Asian Cup Table Tennis tournament?
- Mouma Das
- Neha Aggarwal
- Manika Batra
- Ankita Das
C. Manika Batra
Q16. Which country won the T20 Cricket World Cup 2022?
- Pakistan
- England
- Australia
- India
B. England
In Women’s Cricket, Australia lifted the ICC T20 World Cup Trophy for the sixth time.
Q17. Which country won the Asia Cup 2022?
- India
- Bangladesh
- Sri Lanka
- Pakistan
C. Sri Lanka
Q18. Which country has won the FIFA World Cup 2022 title?
- France
- Portugal
- Argentina
- Russia
C. Argentina
The FIFA World Cup in 2026 is all set to be jointly hosted by the United States, Canada, and Mexico.
Q19. Which Indian shuttler won the ‘Singapore Open 2022’ championship title?
- Lakshya Sen
- Ashwini Ponnappa
- Aparna Popat
- P V Sindhu
D. P V Sindhu
- India Ace shuttler PV Sindhu defeated China’s Wang Zhi Yi in the final match of women’s singles at the Singapore Open 2022.
- The two-time Olympic medallist clinched her maiden Super 500 title of the year 2022.
- The Singapore Open 2022 is Sindhu’s third title of the 2022 season after winning the Syed Modi International and Swiss Open BWF Super 300 titles.
Q20. Who was awarded with Natasurjya Phani Sarma award 2022?
- Rajen Gohain
- Pranjal Saikia
- Arun Nath
- Biju Kakoti
B. Pranjal Saikia
- The state government will confer Natasurjya Phani Sarma award on actor Pranjal Saikia for the year 2022.
- Arun Nath will be conferred Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia Award 2022.
- Music artiste Rajen Gohain and Pokhila Lekthepi will be awarded Silpi Award 2023.
- Biju Phukan Award 2022 will be conferred to filmmaker Samarendra Narayan Dev
Download PDF – MCQ Questions on Awards & Rankings
Q21. Who was awarded with Assam Vaibhav award 2022?
- Sourav Kalita
- Shriya Lohia
- Tapan Saikia
- Jiya Rai
C. Tapan Saikia
Dr Tapan Saikia will be conferred with the Asom Baibhav award for his contributions towards creating awareness and early detection of cancer in Assam and other Northeast states.
Q22. Who has been awarded the 56th Jnanpith Award in Assam?
- Nilomani Phukan
- Basistha Dev Sarma
- Ranjana Bardoloi
- Bipul Das
A. Nilomani Phukan
- The 56th Jnanpith was awarded to Nilamani Phookan. Nilmani Phookan is the third person to win the Jnanpith Award from Assam after Mamoni Roisom Goswami and Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya.
- The Award carried a Citation, a shawl, and Rs. 11 lakh.
- Novelist Damodar Mauzo was chosen for the 57th Jnanpith Award 2021-2022 for his contribution to Indian literature.
Q23. Who was conferred with Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2022 from Assam in Art and Culture?
- Dhritishman Chakraborty
- Puhabi Chakraborti
- Dhiraj Kumar
- Banita Dash
A. Dhritishman Chakraborty
Q24. Indian weightlifter from Aizawl who won gold in the 2022 Commonwealth Games?
- Mirabai Chanu
- Jeremy Lalrinnunga
- Jaismine Lamboria
- Achinta Sheuli
C. Jeremy Lalrinnunga
Jeremy represented India in the 2018 Summer Youth Olympics in Buenos Aires. He won the gold medal in the Boys’ 62 kg category weightlifting, India’s first gold medal in the Youth Olympics Games.
Q25. Who has been recently conferred with Padma Shri for preserving the traditional method of making Etikoppaka toys?
- Ansari Shahid Hussain
- Shri C V Raju
- Raghuram Rajan
- Chitra Mudgal
B. Shri C V Raju
- Shri C V Raju from Etikoppaka village, Visakhapatnam,Andhra Pradesh has been conferred with Padma Shri for preserving the traditional method of making Etikoppaka toys.
- Etikoppaka toys are traditional toys made by artisans of Etikoppaka village located on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
- Toys are made of soft wood and lacquer color. Coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer,roots and leaves.
Q26. Which Indian is to be conferred with France’s highest civilian award Chevalier de la Legion d’Honneur?
- Ashwini Vaishnaw
- Narendra Modi
- Shashi Tharoor
- Droupadi Murmu
C. Shashi Tharoor
The French government is honouring the Shashi Tharoorfor his writings and speeches. The award is also called as the National Order of the Legion of Honour. It was established in 1802 by Napoleon Bonaparte.
Q27. The lawn bowler from Assam who was part of the Indian team to win its first ever gold medals in Lawn Bowls in 2022 Commonwealth Games is
- Nayanmoni Saikia
- Lovely Choubey
- Pinki Singh
- Lovlina Borgohain
A. Nayanmoni Saikia
Q28. Bhupen Hazarika won the Best Music National Director award for the
- Hirak Rajar Deshe
- Chameli Memsaab
- Shakuntala
- Asom Amar Rupahi
B. Chameli Memsaab
- Bhupen Hazarika won the Best Music Director National Award for “Chameli Memsaab” (Chameli Memsaab; music by Bhupen Hazarika) in the 23rd National Film Awards (1975)
- Chameli Memsaab is a 1975 Indian Assamese romantic drama film directed by Abdul Majid. A love story set in a tea estate in Assam, between a British tea estate owner and local tea garden worker.
Q29. Who among the following was the first female Padma Shri Award winner from Assam?
- Manju Borah
- Nalini Bala Devi
- Nalini Prava Deka
- Rita Choudhury
B. Nalini Bala Devi
Q30. Which city won the world Green City award 2022?
- Dibrugarh
- Mysuru
- Dehradun
- Hyderabad
D. Hyderabad
- Hyderabad won the ‘World Green City Award” 2022. The city also won another award in the category “Living Green for Economic Recovery and Inclusive Growth”.
- It also won the overall ‘World Green City 2022’ award. It has been the best across all six categories. The city beats cities like Paris, Montreal, Fortaleza, Mexico City, and Bogota.
Download PDF – MCQ Questions on Awards & Rankings
Q31. Who has been awarded the UN Environment Programme’s (UNEP) 2022 Champions of the Earth award?
- Ghanashyam Mahanta
- Swayam Mallick
- Purnima Devi Barman
- Ajay Kumar Sahoo
C. Purnima Devi Barman
- Indian wildlife biologist Dr Purnima Devi Barman was recently awarded with the Champions of the Earth award in the Entrepreneurial vision category , UN’s highest environmental honour.
- She is the founder of the Hargila Army and senior project manager of the Avifauna Research and Conservation Division, Aaranyak.
Q32. Who is the first recipient of the highest civilian award of Assam, the ‘Assam Baibhav‘?
- Himanta Biswa Sarma
- Ratan Tata
- Sarbananda Sonowal
- Bhupen Hazarika
B. Ratan Tata
- Assam Baibhav is the highest civilian award in the State of Assam, India.
- In 2021, the Government of Assam conferred its highest civilian award, Assam Baibhav, to Ratan Tata for “his exceptional contribution towards furthering cancer care in Assam”.
- The Award carries a cash prize of ₹5 lakh (US$6,600) and the recipient can avail medical treatment throughout his life at government expense.
- On 2 December 2021, Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma officially declared the award on the occasion of “Asomdiwas” (Assam Day).
Q33. Who has been recently awarded the UK’s Royal Order of Merit in recognition of their distinguished service to science?
- C.N.R Rao
- Dr Anish Ghosh
- Dr Saket Saurabh
- Venki Ramakrishnan
D. Venki Ramakrishnan
Nobel laureate professor Venki Ramakrishnan has been awarded the prestigious Order of Merit by Britain’s King Charles III in recognition of his distinguished service to science.
Q34. Who was recently honoured with the ‘Changemaker’ award at UN SDG Action Awards?
- Garvita Gulhati
- Anisha Malik
- Srishti Bakshi
- Akhilesh Anil Kumar
C. Srishti Bakshi
Indian women’s rights activist, Srishti Bakshi was honoured with the ‘Changemaker’ award at UN SDG Action Awards.
Q35. Which city has won the cleanest city award in the Swachh Survekshan 2022 survey?
- Indore
- Hyderabad
- Surat
- Mysuru
A. Indore
- Indore has won the cleanest city award in the Swachh Survekshan 2022 for the sixth consecutive year in the ‘more than 1 lakh population’ category.
- Surat was adjudged the second cleanest city, for the second time in a row. Navi Mumbai bagged the third spot.
- Indore further cemented its position by emerging as India’s first 7-star Garbage Free city, while Surat, Bhopal, Mysuru, Navi Mumbai, Vishakhapatnam, and Tirupati earned 5-star Garbage Free certifications.
- Madhya Pradesh emerged as the ‘Cleanest State’ in the category of “more than 100 Urban Local Bodies”, relegating Chhattisgarh, the Cleanest State of the previous 3 years, to second place. Maharashtra emerged as third cleanest State.
- Tripura emerged as the Cleanest State award in the “less than 100 ULBs category”, dislodging Jharkhand, which had won in the last 2 consecutive years.
Q36. Which of the following product from Assam got Geographical Indication (GI) recently in December 2022?
- Judima
- Boka Saul
- Gamocha
- Joha rice
C. Gamocha
- ‘Gamocha’, which is a symbol of the culture and identity of Assam, has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the central government.
- A Geographical Indication (GI) is tagged to primarily agricultural, natural or manufactured products, handicrafts and industrial goods originating from a definite geographical territory.
- The GI tag has been registered in favour of the Directorate of Handloom & Textiles of the Assam government under the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
Q37. Who among the following has been conferred with the Swami Vivekananda Karmayogi Award 2020?
- Purnima Devi Barman
- Jadav Payeng
- Salim Moizuddin Abdul Ali
- M. S. Swaminathan
B. Jadav Payeng
- Forest Man of India Jadav Payeng was awarded Swami Vivekananda Karmayogi Award 2020. He was awarded the 6th Karmayogi Award for his consistent efforts in creating a real man-made forest through massive reforestation.
- Swami Vivekananda Smriti Karmayogi Award is organized by My Home India in New Delhi. The award was conferred for the first time in 2013. The award is composed of a trophy, a recitation and a reward of Rs 1 lakh.
- Karmayogi Award is presented to great personalities from North-Eastern India who dedicate their lives to Nation and promote Nationalism through art & culture, sports, education, etc. for their contribution to respective fields.
Q38. Who among the following was the first Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpith Award?
- Mamoni Raisom Goswami
- Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya
- Bhattadeva
- Chandrasekhar Kambar
B. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya
- Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya was the first ever Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpith Award, which was awarded to him in the year 1979 for his novel Mrityunjay.
- Mamoni Raisom Goswami was the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2000.
Q39. Who among the following was conferred the 56th Jnanpith Award?
- Amitav Ghosh
- Mamoni Raisom Goswami
- Kedarnath Singh
- Nilamani Phookan
D. Nilamani Phookan
Q40. Who was chosen for the 57th Jnanpith Award 2022 for his contribution to Indian literature?
- G. Sankara Kurup
- Sankha Ghosh
- Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
- Damodar Mauzo
D. Damodar Mauzo
Important MCQ Questions on Ranks of International & National indices
Q41. What is the rank of India in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2022?
- 118
- 115
- 121
- 125
C. 121
- Finland is in the top position in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2022.
- India ranked 120 in the Global Sustainable Development Report, 2021
Q42. What is the rank of India in the World Happiness Report 2022?
- 132
- 180
- 136
- 144
C. 136
- India ranked 136th in the World Happiness Report 2022.
- Finland is in the top position in the world happiness report in 2022.
- India ranked 139th in World Happiness Report 2021.
Q43. What is the rank of India in the Global Peace Index 2022?
- 144
- 135
- 112
- 117
B. 135
Q44. What is the rank of India in the Commitment to Reducing Inequality Index (CRII) 2022?
- 180
- 146
- 37
- 123
D. 123
- According to the latest Commitment to Reducing Inequality Index (CRII), India has moved up six places to rank 123 out of 161 countries for reducing inequality.
- Norway leads the CRII followed by Germany and Australia.
Q45. What is the rank of India in the Network Readiness Index (NR) 2022?
- 40th
- 76th
- 61st
- 106th
C. 61st
Q46. Which institution releases the ‘Global Gender Gap Report’?
- World Economic Forum (WEF)
- International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- International Labour Organization (ILO)
- International Court of Justice
A. World Economic Forum (WEF)
Iceland (90.8%) led the Global Gender Gap Index 2022 ranking in the first place. India is ranked at 135 out of 146 countries. Last year, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries.
Download PDF – MCQ Questions on Awards & Rankings
Q47. Which country is the top-most investor in India during fiscal year 2021-22?
- USA
- China
- Singapore
- UAE
C. Singapore
- India has recorded the highest ever annual FDI inflow of USD 83.57 billion in the Financial Year 2021-22. FDI equity inflow in manufacturing sectors has increased by 76 per cent in 2021-22.
- Singapore was the topmost investor in India last fiscal year, accounting for 27% of the FDI, followed by the US at 18% and Mauritius at 16%. In 2020-21, the inflows were USD 81.97 billion.
Q48. What is the rank of India in the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) 2021?
- 5th
- 7th
- 9th
- 10th
B. 7th
Q49. As per UN report ‘World Population Prospects 2022’, India is projected to surpass China as the world’s most populous country in which year?
- 2023
- 2026
- 2030
- 2033
D. 2023
- According to the report, India’s population stands at 1.412 billion in 2022, compared to China’s 1.426 billion.
- India, which will surpass China as the world’s most populous nation by 2023.
- India is projected to have a population of 1.668 billion in 2050, way ahead of China’s 1.317 billion people by the middle of the century.
- The global population is projected to reach eight billion by November 15, 2022, and could grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030 and 9.7 billion in 2050.
Q50. Which is ranked first in the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2022?
- IIT Madras
- IISc Bangalore
- IIT Kharagpur
- Jawaharlal Nehru University
A. IIT Madras
- The Ministry of Education has released the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) for the year 2022.
- Indian Institute of Technology Madras has retained its first position for the fourth consecutive year in the overall category and for the seventh consecutive year in Engineering. Indian
- Institute of Technology, Delhi was ranked second while Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay, was ranked third.
Q51. Which state is ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index (2021)?
- Kerala
- Tamil Nadu
- Telangana
- Karnataka
D. Karnataka
- Karnataka has been ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index (2021) for the third time in a row. The first edition was released in October 2019.
- India Innovation Index ranks states and union territories on the basis of innovation capabilities.
- Manipur topped the ‘North East and Hill States’ section.
- Chandigarh won the ‘Union Territory and City States’ category.
- TOP State Ranks: Karnataka Telangana Haryana Maharashtra
Q52. Which state has emerged as an overall team champion of the North East Olympic Games 2022?
- Assam
- Meghalaya
- Mizoram
- Manipur
D. Manipur
- The 2nd edition of the North East Olympic Games concluded in Shillong, Meghalaya with Manipur emerging as the overall team champion with a total of 240 medals which included 88 Gold Medals, 75 Silver Medals, and 77 Bronze Medals.
- Assam took the second spot with a total of 203 medals followed by Arunachal Pradesh.
Q53. Which Indian state has topped the Public Affairs Index (PAI) 2022?
- Tamil Nadu
- Assam
- Haryana
- Odisha
C. Haryana
- Haryana topped in the category of big states in the Public Affairs Index-2022. The state has emerged at the forefront in social, economic and political justice themes.
- It has topped among the major states followed by Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Punjab and Karnataka among many other states.
Q54. What is India’s rank in the 2020 Democracy Index?
- 56
- 73
- 86
- 93
D. 93
- India was ranked 93rd in the LDI, India figures in the “bottom 50%” of countries.
- It has slipped further down in the Electoral Democracy Index, to 100, and even lower in the Deliberative Component Index, at 102.
Q55. What is the rank of India in the global aviation safety ranking?
- 110
- 65
- 48
- 132
C. 48
- India ranked 48th position in the global aviation safety ranking by the International Civil Aviation Organization.
- India was in the 102nd position four years ago in the ranking.The position is the highest-ever spot attained by the country.
- In the ranking, Singapore is at the top, followed by the UAE and South Korea at the second and third positions.
Q56. Which of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index 2022?
- Madhya Pradesh
- Kerala
- Punjab
- Goa
B. Kerala
Q57. India’s rank in the ‘Renewable Energy Country Attractiveness Index’ released recently by the consultancy firm Ernst & Young (EY)?
- 1st
- 2nd
- 3rd
- 4th
C. 3rd
Q58. Which state tops in the State of India’s Environment Report 2022?
- Sikkim
- Kerala
- Himachal Pradesh
- Goa
B. Kerala
- The State of India’s Environment Report 2022 was released by the Center for Science and Environment (CSE).
- India has slipped three spots to rank 120 on the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) adopted as a part of the 2030 agenda by 192 United Nations member states in 2015.
- In 2021 India ranked 117 among 192 nations. The overall Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) score of India was 66 out of 100.
- Kerala topped, with Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh in second position. Karnataka, Goa, Uttarakhand, and Andhra Pradesh tied for third place.
- Jharkhand and Bihar are the least prepared to meet the SDGs by the target year 2030.
- Union Territory Rankings: Chandigarh topped among the Union Territories, followed by Delhi, Puducherry, and Lakshadweep in second place, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands in the third position.
Q59. India’s rank among the biggest oil-importing and consuming nations of the world?
- Second
- Third
- Fourth
- Fifth
B. Third
- India is the third largest consumer of crude oil in the world, after the United States and China.
- Iraq has been India’s top supplier for the past few years, staying ahead of Saudi Arabia, which has been producing less than its capacity to meet OPEC supply curb commitments.
- Saudi Arabia was the biggest supplier of crude oil to China, the biggest oil importer in the world in 2020.
Q60. What is the rank of India in the Global Hunger Index 2022?
- 102
- 99
- 107
- 77
C. 107
In the 2022 Global Hunger Index, India ranks 107th out of 121 countries.
Q61. What is the rank of India in the world economy 2022?
- 9th
- 6th
- 5th
- 8th
C. 5th
- According to the World Economy Ranking 2022 India’s GDP is the fifth largest GDP in the world.
- India has surpassed UK to become the fifth largest economy in the world and it contributes 3.5% of the world’s GDP. India has a nominal GDP of 3.8 trillion dollars in 2022.
Q62. What is the rank of India in the world, by purchasing power parity (PPP)?
- Fifth
- Third
- Fourth
- Sixth
B. Third
India is the third-largest economy in the world in PPP terms and the fifth-largest in market exchange rates.
Q63. What is the rank of India in the Global Innovation Index 2022?
- 48th
- 53rd
- 40th
- 62nd
A. 40th
India ranked 40th for the first time in the Global Innovation Index Ranking. India ranked 46th in the Global Innovation Index (GII), 2021.
Q64. What is the rank of India in the World Competitiveness Index (WCI) 2022?
- 37
- 43
- 51
- 29
A. 37
-
- The Index has been compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD).
- IMD is a Swiss foundation, based in Switzerland. The IMD World Competitiveness Yearbook (WCY), first published in 1989.
- Denmark has topped the list followed by Switzerland in second place and Singapore in third place.
- India has come up to 37th rank in 2022 from 43rd in 2021 in the World Competitive Index.
Q65. As per Human Development Report 2021-22, India’s rank on the Human Development Index 2022 is
- 125th
- 132nd
- 140th
- 117th
B. 132nd
- India ranks 132 out of 191 countries and territories on the 2021/22 Human Development Index. India’s HDI value stood at 0.633 in 2021.
- The theme of the HDR 2021-22 which was compiled amidst the COVID Pandemic is “Uncertain Times, Unsettled Lives: Shaping our Future in a Transforming World”.
- Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked India at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for 2022.
Q66. Which of the following is an INCORRECT match of Global Index and India’s Ranking in it?
- Global Hunger Index – India’s rank 107th
- Henley Passport Index 2022 – India’s rank 68th
- Global Crypto Adoption Index 2022 – India’s rank 4th
- World Competitiveness Index 2022 – India’s rank 37th
B. Henley Passport Index 2022 – India’s rank 87th
Q67. Which state topped the Business Reform Action Plan 2020′ (BARP) ranking?
- Punjab
- Andhra Pradesh
- Gujarat
- Haryana
B. Andhra Pradesh
- Government released the ‘State Business Reform Action Plan 2020’ (BARP) ranking which shows how Indian states have fared in enhancing Ease of Doing Business for an Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman released the 2020 rankings in which Andhra Pradesh retained the number one ranking.
- Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Telangana are the Top Achievers based on implementation of Business Reforms Action Plan.
- Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh figure under the Achievers category.
- Assam, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Jharkhand, Kerala, Rajasthan and West Bengal have been placed in the Aspirers category.
- Andaman & Nicobar, Bihar, Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Puducherry and Tripura have been clubbed under the Emerging Business Ecosystems category.
Q68. What is the rank of India in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2022?
- 168th
- 151st
- 180th
- 106th
C. 180th
- The rank of India in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2022 is 180th.
- The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is an international ranking system of countries based on their environmental health.
- It is a biennial index, first started in 2002 as the Environment Sustainability Index by the World Economic Forum in collaboration with the Yale Centre for Environmental Law and Policy and Columbia University Center for International Earth Information Network.
- India ranked 168th in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) in 2020 while it ranked 177th in 2018.
Q69. With reference to Climate Change Performance Index, Consider the following statements:
- The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is released every year at the UN Climate Change Conference.
- The index was released jointly by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network.
- India has ranked 8th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- Only I
- II and III
- I and III
- All of the above
D. All of the above
- The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is released every year at the UN Climate Change Conference.
- Climate Change Performance Index 2023 was released jointly by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network.
- India has ranked 8th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023 published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany.
- Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU.
- It aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
Q70. What is the rank of India in the Global Democracy Index (GDI) 2022?
- 46th
- 93rd
- 76th
- 57th
B. 93rd
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Q82. Bhogeswar Baruah was the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam in 1966. Who was the 2nd Assamese to win this coveted award of Indian sports in 1987?
- Tayabun Nisha
- Monalisa Baruah Mehta
- Madalisa Hazarika
- Toshen Bora
Correct option: (B) Monalisa Baruah Mehta.
Five Arjuna Award winners from Assam
Arjuna Award is India’s second highest sporting honour. Started in 1961, the Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize outstanding achievement in sports. Since then five sports persons from Assam had been awarded with this prestigious award.
Bhogeswar Baruah
Bhogeswar Baruah is the first Arjuna Award winner from Assam. He received the prestigious award in 1966. He won gold medal in the 800 metres race at Bangkok Asian Games in 1966. Baruah’s birthday is celebrated on September 3 every year in Assam, called Abhiruchi Sports Day.
Monalisa Baruah Mehta.
Ace table tennis player Monalisa Baruah Mehta is the second Assamese to receive Arjuna Award. She received the prestigious award in 1987. Monalisa is married to ace table tennis player Kamalesh Mehta. Monalisa was the 12 time state champion and won the national table tennis championship eight times.
Jayanta Talukdar
Ace archer Jayanta Talukdar received the Arjuna Award in 2006. He is the third sports person from Assam, after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and Monalisa Barua Mehta (1987) to receive this prestigious award. Jayanta Talukdar made it to the Indian men’s recurve archers team for London Olympics 2012.
Shiva Thapa
World Championships bronze-medallist Shiva Thapa is the fourth Assamese player to receive the prestigious award in 2016. Thapa was the only boxer recommended in 2016 for Arjuna Award. Shiva Thapa participated in the 2012 London Olympics. He was the youngest Indian boxer to qualify for the Olympics.
Hima Das
India’s track queen Hima Das is the latest addition to the list of Arjuna awardees from Assam this year. She is the second athlete after Bhogeswar Baruah (1966) and fifth Assamese player to receive this award.
Q83.
Q83. Which Assamese film won the first-even National Film Award (the President’s Certificate of Merit) for regional language category in 1955?
- Piyoli Phukan
- Maniram Dewan
- Indramalati
- Ronga Police
(A) Piyoli Phukan
The 1955 Phani Sarma directorial film Piyali Phukan received the first Certificate of Merit.
The film is based on the life and struggle of a historical character of Assam, Piyoli Phukan, son of Badan Borphukan, who revolted against British occupation. He was sentenced to death and hanged in 1830 at Jorhat. The film is produced by Gama Prasad Agarwalla under the banner of Rupjyoti Production, Tezpur, Assam. Piyoli Phukan is the first Assamese film, which got national reorganization.
Film Ronga Police, directed by Nip Barua, became the first film to receive the president’s Silver Medal for Best Feature Film in Assamese.
Q84. Great Footballer Talimeren Ao was born in undivided Assam (in Naga Hills
district), and went on to study at Cotton College and RG Kar Medical College for his degree in medicine. He holds an unique status in Indian football. What is that?
- He scored the first goal for India in international matches.
- He was the first captain of Indian football team in 1948 London Olympics.
- He was the flag bearer of Indian contingent in 1948 London Olympics.
- Both b and c
Correct option: (D) Both b and c
Talimeren Ao was an Indian footballer and physician. He is best known as the captain of Indian team in their first ever match. He was born on 28 January 1918 in the then Naga Hills District of Assam. He was a figurehead of India’s football history, and his name is resonant in the collective memory of the people.
Ao was the captain of the India national football team in the 1948 Summer Olympics, in the team’s first official game and was the flag-bearer of the Indian contingent.
Q85. Aximat Jar Xeral Xima is a landmark in Assamese Novel written by Kanchan Baruah and was published in 1945. But Kanchan Baruah is the pen name. What is the author’s real name?
- Brajamohan Sarma
- Bhubanmohan Baruah
- Medini Choudhury
- None of them
Correct option: (B) Bhubanmohan Baruah
Q86. The Tale of Nomadic Soul is the English translation of a famous Novel by Syed Abdul Malik. Which is that novel among the following?
- Parashmoni
- Adharshila
- Aghari Atmar Kahini
- Ruptirthar Yatri
Correct option: (C) Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee
The Tale of Nomadic Soul: Translated in English by R.P.Khaund from the Original Assamese Novel “Aghori Atmar Ka Hinee” by Malik Syed Abdul.
Q87. The novel Abhijatri is based on the life and achievements of
- Nalini Bala Devi
- Aideu Handique
- Chandraprabha Saikiani
- Rajbala Handique
Correct option: (C) Chandraprabha Saikiani
