APSC Prelims 2023 – General Studies (GS) Paper 1 Solved | Download PDF

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APSC Prelims 2023 – General Studies (GS) Paper 1 Solved | Download PDF

APSC Prelim 2023 GS-I Paper – Download PDF

Previous Years APSC Prelim Question Papers (GS & CSAT)

APSC Prelim 2023 General Studies (GS-I) Paper – Download PDF

Go to APSC Prelim Previous Years Questions

Q1. Chief Minister’s Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal was launched on 23rd September, 2023. To qualify for financial assistance of Rs. 5.0 lakh under the scheme, which of the following criteria are necessary?

  1. The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam.
  2. The applicant must not be older than 28 years of age .
  3. The applicant must have a bank account opened before 31st December, 2023.
  4. The applicant must have a professional degree in engineering/medical/dental/veterinary/fishery/agriculture, etc. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I and IV only

 

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q2. Which of the following is/are correct about a Bad Bank?

  1. A bank that is insolvent. 
  2. A bank that has become bankrupt.
  3. A bank whose NPAs have crossed the tolerable limit
  4. A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. IV only

 

D. IV only

 

Q3. Pick up the wrong statement/statements regarding an interim budget in India.

  1. It provides continuity in governance during the transition period between the governments.
  2. The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Budget.
  3. The Economic Survey is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget.
  4. It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. III only
  4. II and IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 5 ->Q24. partially matched)

C. III only

 

Q4. INS Imphal was declared to the Indian Navy on 20th October, 2023. Which of the following statements about INS Imphal is/are not correct?

  1. It is a Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.
  2. It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. 
  3. It was Commissioned into the Indian Navy  in December 2023.
  4. The ship boasts 100% indigenous content. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. III and IV only
  4. IV only

D. IV only

(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

 

Q5. The ‘HUMP WWII Museum’ was opened in Arunachal Pradesh in 2023. Which of the following statements are correct pertaining to the Museum?

  1. The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat. 
  2. The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice covered eastern Himalayan mountains. 
  3. The dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese Forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma (Myanmar).
  4. The route also earned the moniker ‘Aluminium Trail’ Because of the number of crashes. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. I and IV only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

 

Q6. Which of the following lists is correct carrying the names of the five-member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November, 2029? 

  1. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer
  2. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice U. U. Lalit
  3. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice Surya Kant
  4. Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah, Justice Sharad A.  Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

A. Justice Ranjan Gogoi flanked by (L-R) Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde, Justice Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, Justice S Abdul Nazeer


Q7. Match following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II)

List-I                                                             List-II

  1. Bordoibam Bilmulkh WLS          1. Lakhimpur
  2. Pabha WLS                                      2. Dhemaji
  3. Pani Dining WLS                            3. Sivasagar
  4. Gibbon WLS                                    4. Jorhat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

C. a2, b1, c3, d4

 

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Grammy Awards:

(iI Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys

(ii) Flautist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys

(iii) Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist L. Subramaniam won 1 Grammy each

(iv) The fusion group ‘Shakti’ won the 2024 Grammy Award for the best global music album for ‘This Moment’.

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

  1. (i) and (ii) only
  2. (iv) only
  3. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q86. matched)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Q9. Consider the following pairs:

(i) Mahamaya Temple                          : Dhubri

(ii) Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar         : Golaghat

(iii) Malini Than                                      : Dhemaji

(iv) Deopani Temple                            :Jorhat

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

B. (i) and (iii) only

 

Q10. Match following personalities (List-I) with the awards/recognitions they has been conferred with (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

  1. Hemoprova Chutia            1. Awarded Padma Shri in 2023
  2. Jintimoni Nakul Kalita      2. First female participant from Assam in the T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kung
  3. Uma Chetry                         3. Indian cricket player from Assam in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China
  4. Pratima Nandi Narzary    4. Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar 2023

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. A1, b2, c3, d4

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q18. matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

 

Q11. India breached the 100-medal mark for the first time in the Asian Games at Hangzhou in China in 2023. Select the correct pair of gold and silver medals from the options given below:

  1.  Gold-24, Silver-34
  2.  Gold-28, Silver-38
  3. Gold-28, Silver-32
  4. Gold-22, Silver-38

B. Gold-28, Silver-38

India’s Achievement in 19th Asian Games 2023 – 107 Medals & Records

 

Q12. The operation to evacuate the Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war is names as

  1. Operation Rahat
  2. Operation Ajay
  3. Operation Devi Shakti
  4. Operation Kaveri

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q71 matched)

B. Operation Ajay

 

Q13. Match the following historical/tourist places of Assam (List-I) with the corresponding districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

  1. Ghuguha Dol                                1. Darrang
  2. Patharughat                                  2. Dhemaji
  3. Sankhadevi Archeological Site 3. Nagaon
  4. Baduli Khurung                            4. Hojai

(B) a2, b1, c4, d3

Patharughatar Rann of 1894 or Patharughat massacre (History of Assam)

 

Q14. Read the following statements regarding ‘Blockchain’. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) It is a method of recording information that makes it impossible or difficult for the system to be changed, hacked, or manipulated.

(ii) This method can ensure secure transactions, lower compliance expenses and accurate data transfer processing.

(iii) This method is used only in financial service industry.

(iv) Fuji Nakamon is the name used by the presumed pseudonymous person or persons who developed Bitcoin.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. (i) only
  2. (i) and (ii) only
  3. (i), (i) and (iii) only
  4. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

( Daily Current Affairs Qs in Facebook page: Adhikary Education | Silchar (facebook.com) matched)

B. (i) and (ii) only

 

Q15. Who among the following was awarded the Siu-Ka-Pha Award, 2023?

(A) Dhirendra Nath Bezbaruah

(B) Pranab Jyoti Deka

(C) Nandeswar Daimari

(D) Ranjan Gogoi

 

(A) Dhirendra Nath Bezbaruah

 

Q16. Who among the following are Arjuna Award winners from Assam?

(i) Bhogeswar Baruah

(ii) Monalisa Baruah Mehta

(iii) Amlan Borgohain

(iv) Jayanta Talukdar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

 

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

 

Q17. The Mukhyamantn Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA) was announced in January 2024. What are the eligibility criteria for the scheme?

(i) All women self-help groups of Assam are eligible for the scheme.

(ii) If the applicants have girl children, they must be enrolled in school

(iii) The trees the applicants planted under the Amrit Briksha Andolan should be surviving.

(iv) General and OBC categories applicants cannot have more than three children.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 5 ->Q1 partially matched)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

 

Q18. If an individual is awarded with a gold medal called Lachit Borphukan Medal as the best Army Cadet, where has he/she passed out from?

(A) Indian Military Academy (IMA)

(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

(C) Rashtriya Indian Military College (RIMC)

(D) Army Cadet College (ACC)

 

(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

 

Q19. Arrange the following Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly in the chronological order:

(i) Pulakesh Baruah

(ii) Kuladhar Chaliha

(iii) Debeswar Sarma

(iv) Mahendra Mohan Choudhury


Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-{i)

(B) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)

(C) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

(D) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)

 

(C) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

 

Q20. Arrange, in descending order, the population in Assam by languages as per the Census of India, 2011.

(A) Assamese, Mising, Bengali, Bodo

(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

(C) Assamese, Bodo, Mising, Bengali

(D) Assamese, Mising, Bodo, Bengali

 

(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

Assam Demography in Census 2011 – Population, Sex Ratio, Literacy rate Highlights & figures

Q21. Which of the following is/are NOT the work/works of Madhavdev?

(i) Nam Ghosa

(ii) Bhakti Ratnavali

(iii) Bhumi Letowa

(iv) Balichalan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. (i) only
  2. (ii) and (iv) only
  3. (iv) only
  4. (iii) and (iv) only

 

C. (iv) only

 

Q22. Match the following places of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                            List-II

  1. Titabar           1. Sivasagar
  2. Doulasal        2. Barpeta
  3. Nazira            3. Jorhat
  4. Sarthebari    4. Nalbari

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(D) a3, b4, c1, d2

 

Q23. Which of the following names of the Agroclimatic Zones of Assam is/are NOT correct?

(i) Upper Brahmaputra Valley

(ii) North Central Brahmaputra Valley

(iii) Barail Zone

(iv) Hill Zone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) {i) only

(B) iii) and {iv) only

(C) {ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q24. Which of the following statements are correct about the Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023?

(i) The Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023 proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and National Capital Territory of Delhi.

(ii) Similar reservation will also be provided within the seats reserved for SC and ST.

(ii) The Bill proposes that the reservation will continue for 25 years.

(iv) The Bill which reserves 33% of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies includes the quota for women from the OBCs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and [iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (i), (iii) and (iv)

 

(A) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q25. Match the following schemes (List-I) with the correct objectives (List-II):

List-I                                                    List-II

a. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao 1. It gives important to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children of 0-6 years of age.

b. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana 2. It offers free course materials/online resources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards.

c. CBSE Udaan Scheme 3. To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to BPL category

d. Poshan Abhiyan 4. Removing or preventing gender bias selective abortions for the girl child

 

(A) a 4             b 3       c 2       d 1

 

Q26. Match the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) (List-l) with the States/Union Territories they belong to (List-Il) ;

List—1                                     List—II

a. Maram 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

b. Jarawa 2. Tripura

c. Birhor 3. Manipur

d. Reang 4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

(B)       a 3         b 1          c 4          d 2

 

Q27. Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheduled Castes in Assam as per the 2011 Census?

(i) Scheduled Caste population constitutes about 7-15% of the total population of Assam.

(ii) 16 sub-castes are recognized as SCs in Assam, such as Basfor, Bhuimali, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, Kaibartta, etc.

(iii) Nagaon district has the highest percentage of SC population followed by Cachar and Kamrup.

(iv) The literacy rate of SCs in Assam is 66°76% with SC females constituting 55° and SC males constituting 44-48%.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i, ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q28. Match the following demographic terms (List-1) with their meanings (definitions) (List-Il) :

List-I                                                    List-II

a. Birthrate                          1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year

b. Crude birth rate            2. Number of live births rate Per one  thousand inhabitants in a year

c. Cohort fertility               3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by its age structure

d. Birth deficit                    4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

(A) a 2             b 3       c 1       d 4

 

Q29. Match the following personalities (List-}) with the awards conferred on them (List-Hl):

List—I                                   List—Il

  1. Pranab Jyoti Deka   1. Sahitya Akademi Award
  2. Arup Kumar Dutta  2. Kalicharan Brahma Award
  3. Dr. Joyanti Chutia    3. Shri Madhavdev Award
  4. Dr. Tiyathi Zameer   4. Sati Sadhani Award

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

B. a 1       b 3       c 4       d 2

 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 10 ->Q62 matched)

 

Q30. The Ramchandi Temple, which was built during 12th century, is situated on the bank of which of the rivers of Assam?

(A) Gadadhar

(8) Kushiyara

(C) Longai

(D) Mahur

 

(D) Mahur

Q31. Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

(i) He got the moniker ‘Sardar’ due to his organizational skills during Bardoli Satyagraha.

(ii) The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cellmates was Naini Prison.

(iii) He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989,

(iv) He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

 

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q32. Match the following names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II):

List-I                                        List-II

  1. Susenghphaa             1. Rajeswar Singha
  2. Suremphaa                 2. Chakradhwaj Singha
  3. Sutemla                       3. Pratap Singha
  4. Supangmung            4. Jayadhwaj Singha

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

B. a 3       b 1       c 4       d 2

 

Q33. Gaurinath Singha entered into an Agreement with the East India Company on which of the following terms?

(i) All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%

(ii) The duty on export was to be 10%

(iii) Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty

(iv) Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i), II and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q34. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books written by them (List-II):

List-I                                                       List-II

  1. Gunabhiram Baruah                1. Asamiya Byakaran
  2. Harakanta Sarma Baruah       2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra
  3. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan 3. Ram Navami
  4. Hemchandra Baruah               4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

(C) a 3     b 4       c 2       d 1

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q17 partially matched)

 

Q35. Match the following associations (List-I) with their respective founders (List-II):

List—I                                              List—II

  1. Indian League                    1. Ananda Mohan Bose
  2. Indian Association            2. Jagannath Baruah
  3. Assam Association            3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh
  4. Jorhat Sarbajanik Sabha 4. Manik Chandra Baruah

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

 

(B) a 3             b 1       c 4       d 2

 

Q36. The Global Drought Snapshot, released in December 2023 at the beginning of the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP-28) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Dubai, exposes the devastating consequences of droughts on lives, economies, and various sectors. Based on the data reported by 101 parties to the UNCCD, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i} The report reveals that a staggering 1.84 billion people experienced the effects of drought. Among them 4-7% faced severe or extreme drought conditions.

(ii) Notably South Africa faced the highest number of declarations.

(iii) Drought severity prompted emergency declarations in 23 countries.

(iv) The US, Canada, India and Sri Lanka are the countries that never declared drought emergencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D} (i), (ii), (i) and (iv)

 

(C) (i) and (iii) only

 

Q37. Which of the following sessions of Asom Sahitya Sabha was/were presided over by Sitanath Brahma Choudhury?

(i) Tinsukia

(ii) Dipbu

(iii) Sivasagar

(iv) Tezpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

 

(B) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) :

(i) It is the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries in India.

(ii) It is implemented in all States/ Union Territories as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package for a period of five years from Financial Year 2020-21 to Financial Year 2024-25

(iii) The Central Govt bears the project cost and States/UT share the cost of sub-components of the scheme.

(iv) Ornamental fish cultivation is kept out of focus under PMMSY.

Select the correct Statement(s) using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (iv) only

(D) (ii) only

 

(C) (iv) only

 

Q39. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) ;

(i) The programme includes recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation and rainwater harvesting.

(ii) It is a demand-driven scheme with strong emphasis on Jan Bhagidari (community engagement) as a crucial pillar of the project.

(iii) The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark Government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh.

(iv) An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission’s construction phase.

Select the correct statement/Statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q40. Consider the following statements:

(i) MV Ganga Vilas is the world’s longest river cruise covering over 51 days across 2 countries, 5 States and 27 river systems.

(ii) Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the cruise from Varanasi on 13th January, 2023.

(iii) The international cruise being offered  by Antara Luxury River Cruises who is operating since 2009.

(iv) The cruise  culminated the journey on 28th February in Sadiya.

Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (iv) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

 

(B) (iv) only

 

Q41. Which of the following dramas/Ankiya Nats was/were not composed by Sankardev?

  1. Kaliya Daman
  2. Patni Prasada
  3. Keli Gopal
  4. Arjun Bhanjan

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

 

(D) (iv) only

 

Q42. India celebrated her 75th Republic Day on 26th January, 2024. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the celebration of the Republic Day, 2024?

  1. The Parade was held on Kartavya Path.
  2. The theme of the 75th Republic Day was ‘Biksit Bharat’ and ‘Bharat ; Loktantra Ki Matruka’,
  3. The three States which presented tableaux from North-East India were Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland.
  4. ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandrayaan-IIl at the Parade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (iii) only

(C) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 6 ->Q12  matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(B) (iii) only

 

Q43. All the Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav and Assam Gourav awardees are offered certain benefits/facilities. Which of the following is/are not included in the list of benefits?

(i) They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available.

(ii) They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses and Assam Bhawans.

(iii) ‘They will be regular invitees for all the official functions as distinguished guests.

(iv) The Government of Assam will provide them up to Rs. 5 Lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q31  matched)
(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(D) (iv) only

 

Q44. Consider the following statements:

(i) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.

(ii) NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and European Space Agency.

(iii) The objective of NISAR is to co-develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture RADAR on an Earth observation satellite. 

(iv) NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q76  partially matched)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

 

Q45. Consider the following statements:

(i) India’s solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.

(ii) Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies.

(iii) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system

(iv) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(Topic covered in our Current Affairs 2023 Module,  part of APSC Prelim Test Series 2023)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q46. In the Interim Union Budget, 2024, the Finance Minister mentioned four specific groups of the population to focus on. Which of the following is/are not in the list?

(i) Poor

(ii) Women

(iii) Entrepreneur

(iv) Youth

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

 

(C) (iii) only

  

Q47.  Consider the following statements.

(i) In computer parlance, a cookie is a malicius computer virus.

(ii) In computer parlance, a cookie is a small piece of text sent by a website to the internet browser.

(iii) Internet cookies are used by banking websites only.

(iv) Internet cookies help the websites to remember the client’s visit to the website.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

 

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

 

Q48. What is/are the factor/factors that has/have prompted the colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in Brahmaputra Valley?

(i) Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal

(ii) High demand of jute in the world market

(iii) Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley.

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

(C) (i) and (ii) only

 

Q49. Which of the following characteristics make a braided river different from a meandering river of similar discharge?

(i) Wider and Shallower

(ii) Transports high sediment load

(iii) Erodes riverbanks rapidly

(iv) Deeper

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

 

Q50. In which of the following Satras in Assam, the religious head (Satradhikar) is elected?

(i) Auniati

(ii) Dakhinpat

(iii) Kamalabari

(iv) Barpeta

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(C) (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

 

 (D) (iv) only

Q51. As per the tripartite Memorandum of settlement signed between Government of India, Government of Assam with representatives of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) on 29th december 2023, which of the following will not be set up in Assam?

  1. Indian Institute of Management
  2. School of planning and Architecture
  3. Indian Institute of Science
  4. Indian Institute of Science Education and Research

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II and IV only
  3. III only
  4. III and IV only

 

C. III only

 

Q52. Match the following books (List-I) with their authors (List-II): 

List I                                                                          List II

  1. A Comprehensive History of Assam        1. Arup Jyoti Saikia
  2. The Quest for Modern Assam History     2. Arup Kumar Dutta 
  3. The Ahoms: A Reimagined History         3. Dr Nagen Saikia
  4. Asamiya Manuhar Itihas                            4. Sarnalata Baruah 

         Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

D. a4, b1,   c2, d3, 

 

Q53. With reference to the Charaideo Maidams, consider the following statements; 

  1. These are mounds containing the remains of the loyalty of the Varman dynasty.
  2. They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range
  3. Charaideo Maidams is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. 
  4. The first king who was buried after death here was Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I and III only
  2. I, II and IV only
  3. II only
  4. I, II and III only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q60  partially matched)

C. II only

 

Q54. With reference to the Archeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements:

  1. The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archeological sites and remains of national importance. 
  2. It does not regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972. 
  3. Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of ASI.
  4. ASI is attached to the Ministry of Education, Government of India. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and III only
  3. III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

 

B. I and III only

 

Q55. Match the following wetlands (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II): 

List I                                           List II

  1. Urpad Beel                    1. Bongaigaon
  2. Son Beel                        2. Goalpara
  3. Tamranga Beel            3. Morigaon
  4. Nandini-Sonai Beel    4. Karimganj 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 2 ->Q65  partially matched)

A. a2, b4, c1, d3

 

Q56. Match the following Institution (List-I) with their years of establishment (List-II): 

List I                                                           List II

  1. Cotton College                                1. 1901
  2. Gauhati University                         2. 1969
  3. Assam Agricultural University    3. 1948
  4. Tezpur University                           4. 1994

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.


D. a1, b3, c2, d4

 

Q57. Consider the following developments pertaining to the history of Modern Education in India: 

  1. Sadler University Commission
  2. Lord Macaulay’s minute 
  3. Raleigh Commission
  4. Wood’s Dispatch 

Select the correct chronological order of these developments using the codes given below.

  1. I, III, II, IV
  2. II, III, I, IV
  3. II, IV, III, I
  4. I, II, III, IV


C. II, IV, III, I

 

Q58. With reference to the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, consider the following statements:

  1. The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandela dynasty.
  2. The temples at Khajuraho were associated with Hinduism and Jainism.
  3. The temples were built in Dravidian-style architecture.
  4. These are situated in Chhatarpur district in Maharashtra. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I and IV only

B. I and II only

 

Q59. Consider the following events pertaining to the Freedom Movement in India:

  1. Mountbatten Plan 
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Wavell Plan
  4. Royal Indian Navy Mutiny

Select the correct chronological order of these events using the codes given below.

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. II, I, III, IV
  3. II, IV, I, III
  4. II, I, IV, III

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 1 ->Q3  explanation)

A. II, III, IV, I

 

Q60. The NITI Forum for North-East was set up in February 2018 to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth. The forum has identified 5 focus areas for the North East. Which of the following is/are not in the list of focus areas?

  1. Tourism
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Pulses
  4. Fruits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I  and II only
  3. III only
  4. III and IV only

D. III and IV only

Q61. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched:

  1. State bird of Assam           : Hornbill
  2. State animal of Assam       : Rhino
  3. State flower of Assam        : Sunflower
  4. State tree of Assam           : Hollong

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. III and IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 2 ->Q33  explanation)

B. I and III only

 

Q62. Consider the following pairs:

Places                     Events in the life of Buddha

  1. Lumbini       : Birth
  2. Sarnath        : Dharmachakrapavartana 
  3. Kushinagar : Enlightenment 
  4. Benaras       :  The Miracles 

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

  1. I and IV only
  2. I and II only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III only 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 1 ->Q66 & Q68)

B. I and II only

 

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission of India:

  1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the President of India. 
  2. Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census.
  3. The first Delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per 1951 Census. 
  4. The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q66)

D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India: 

  1. The Election Commission of India is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures including the Panchayats. 
  2. The power of the Election Commission of India derived is from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
  3. Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner, who joined his office on 15th May, 2022. 
  4. The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years. 

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and IV only
  4. III only 

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q45)

C. I and IV only

 

Q65. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India:

  1. GST is a successor of VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services.
  2. GST came into effect on 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Amendment of the Constitution of India.
  3. Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.
  4. The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. 

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III and IV only
  4. I, II and III only

D. I, II and III only

 

Q66. Consider the following statements regarding Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

  1. Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. 
  2. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal rights. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of of the Supreme Court.
  3. The Supreme Courts can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal rights is alleged.
  4. The High Courts can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.  

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

  1. I, II and III only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q67. Which among the following autonomous councils in Assam have been formed under the sixth schedule of the constitution of India? 

  1. Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region
  2. Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council 
  3. Dima Hasao Autonomous Council 
  4. Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 8 ->Q67)

C. I, II and III only

 

Q68. Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions to some of the States of India made by the Constitution:

  1. Article 371C provides for the special provisions for the state of Assam. Under this article the President of India is empowered to provide for the creation of committee of the Assam legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from Tribal Areas of the State and such other members as he/she may specify.
  2. Article 371C was added by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969.
  3. Article 371D deals with special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371E deals with the establishments of Central University in Andhra Pradesh. 
  4. 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was made in 1973, inserted Article 371D and 371E into the Constitution of India. 

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and II only
  4. I and III only


C. I and II only

 

Q69. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of official languages in India:

  1. Article 343 of the Constitution of India has made Hindi in Devanagari as the National Language of India.
  2. The Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state as the official language/languages of the State as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.
  3. The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 has been legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

B. II and III only

 

Q70. Match the following schedules of Indian Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters in (List- II): 

List-I                                          List-II

  1. Fourth Schedule           1. Forms of oaths and affirmations 
  2. Eleventh Schedule       2. Languages
  3. Eighth Schedule           3. Power of Panchayats 
  4. Third Schedule              4. Allocations of Seats in the Council of States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 12 ->Q2)

B. a4, b3, c2. d1

Q71. Consider the following factors regarding the declaration of a Political Party as a State Party by the Election Commission of India: 

  1. If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the states in a general election to the respective State Legislative Assembly, and also it wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly 
  2. If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and also it wins 1 seat in the Lok sabha from the same state
  3. If it wins 3% of the seats in the Legislative Assembly at a general election to the Legislative Assembly of the state concerned for 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more)
  4. If it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the State or to the State Legislative Assembly

Select the incorrect factors/factor using the codes given below.

  1. I, II and III only
  2. III and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. IV only

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q49 partially matched)

D. IV only

 

Q72. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between Censure and no-confidence motion?

  1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption. On the other hand a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption. 
  2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers. In contrast a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
  3. The Government must resign if a no confidence motion is passed. On the other hand the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed. 
  4. A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, III and IV only
  2. II, III and IV only
  3. I and II only
  4. I, II and III only


D. I, II and III only

 

Q73. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam legislative Assembly:

  1. According to the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, a Bicameral Legislature of Assam Province came into existence in 1937.
  2. The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly took place on April 7, 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong.
  3. Pulakesh Barua and Ganesh Kutum were the Speakers of Assam Legislative Assembly from Asom Gana Parishad and Janata Party respectively. 
  4. Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV

(Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4 ->Q1)

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q74. It is easier to roll barrel than to pull it because

  1. the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled.
  2. rolling friction is much less than sliding friction. 
  3. the surface area of the barrel in contact with the road is more in case of pulling.
  4. of a reason other than those mentioned


B. rolling friction is much less than sliding friction. 

 

Q75. The mass of a body is different from its weight because 

  1. Mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is constant.
  2. Mass varies very little at different places whereas weight varies a lot
  3. Mass is constant but weight decreases as the body moves from the Poles to the Equator
  4. Mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force

Select the correct reason/ reasons using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and IV
  3. III only
  4. III and IV

B. II and IV

 

Q76. Paddy fields are chief sources of which of the following greenhouse gasses?

  1. Methane
  2. Carbon Dioxide
  3. Nitrous Oxide
  4. Ozone 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and III
  4. II, III and IV 

A. I only

 

Q77. Which of the following groups contains/contain only non-biodegradable materials?

  1. Wood, paper, leather 
  2. Plastic, bakelite, DDT
  3. Plastic, thermocol, wood
  4. Thermocol, plates made from dried leaves, detergents

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. II only
  3. II and III only
  4. III and IV only

B. II only

 

Q78. For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends on

  1. The temperature of the liquid
  2. The temperature of air
  3. The surface area of the liquid

Select the incorrect factor/factors using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III


D. I, II and III

 

Q79. One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because 

  1. This can damage the appliances 
  2. This can damage the domestic wiring due to overheating
  3. The appliances will not get full voltage

Select the valid reason/reasons using the codes given below.

  1. II and III only
  2. II only
  3. I and II
  4. III only

B. II only

 

Q80. Consider the following pairs of scientist and their discoveries:

Scientists                  Discoveries

  1. Copernicus          Law of gravitation       
  2. Kepler                  Law of planetary motion
  3. Galileo                 Moons of Jupiter
  4. Newton                 Heliocentric theory

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

  1. I and II only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I, II, III and IV
  4. II and III

D. II and III

Q81.  From the distance- time graphs of two motorists A and B, it can be seen that

  1. A travelled with uniform speed but B did not.
  2. A travelled faster than B throughout
  3. B travelled faster than A throughout
  4. A and B travelled with equal speed.

C. B travelled faster than A throughout

 

Q82. Solutions are of many types. Consider the following types of solution with an example of each. 

  1. Gas in liquid  – Vinegar
  2. Solid in liquid – Brine
  3. Solid in solid  – Brass
  4. Liquid in liquid – Coca-Cola

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below:

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only


B. II and III only

 

Q83. Which of the following elements does sugar contain?

  1. Carbon
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Oxygen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, III and IV only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I and III
  4. I and IV


A. I, III and IV only

 

Q84. Consider the following statements:

  1. Assam was formed into a Chief Commissioner’s Province in 1874.
  2. Assam was declared as a Governor’s Province in 1921.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II

( Our APSC Prelim Test Series 2023 – Test 4-> Q59  &  Test 12 ->Q7 )

C. Both I and II

 

Q85. The Interim Budget -2024 announcement for implementation of 3 Economic Railway Corridors identified under the PM Gati Shakti for enabling multinodal connectivity includes which of the following?

  1. Energy, Mineral  and Cement Corridors
  2. Rural Roads Connectivity Corridors
  3. Port Connectivity Corridors
  4. High Traffic Density Corridors

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II only
  2. I, II and III only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

 

Q86. Which of the following best describes/describe the main aim of ‘ Green India Mission’  of the government of India? 

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and state’s budgets thereby implementing the ‘ green accounting’ 
  2. Launching the second Green Revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to all and one in the future. 
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. III only
  4. I, II and III

C. III only

 

Q87. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? 

  1. It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emission.
  2. It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies. 
  3. It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2030. 
  4. It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank. 


A. It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emission.

 

Q88. Which of the following Faunas are found in North East India?

  1. Tokay gecko
  2. Red Panda
  3. Hoolock gibbon
  4. Lion-tailed macaque

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II
  2. II and III
  3. I, II and III
  4. I, II, III and IV


C. I, II and III

 

Q89. Which of the following national parks in India are World Heritage Sites? 

  1. Keoladeo National Park 
  2. Manas National Park 
  3. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
  4. Great Himalayan National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I, II and III only 
  2. II, III and IV only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV


D. I, II, III and IV

 

Q90. Protection of Wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India?

  1. Fundamental Duties
  2. Directive Principles
  3. Seventh Schedule
  4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

  1. I and II
  2. II and IV
  3. I and III
  4. I, II and III


D. I, II and III

 

Q91. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of their habitat?

  1. Adjustment
  2. Adaptation
  3. Acclimatization 
  4. Adaptive Variation 


B. Adaptation

 

Q92. Recently the ‘ Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), 2023 was submitted by PRATHAM. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the report?

  1. The Report focused on 14-18 years of age group. 
  2. According to the report, the percentage of the youths not enrolled in any form of education has gone up for 14 years olds and gone down 18 years old as compared to the year 2017. 
  3. For discontinuing education, almost 20% of girls attributed it to family constraints’. 
  4. The report asserted that the fear that the several other students dropped out of school during the COVID-19 Pandemic due to loss of livelihood was true. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. I and III
  4. II and IV

C. I and III

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbor Deuri, a prominent leader of the Tribal League:

  1. Bhimbor Deuri vehemently opposed the Muslims League’s conspiracy to include Assam in a grouping plan with Bengal.
  2. Bhimbor Deuri supported a proposal for a separate electorate  for the tribal people for strengthening the rights of indigenous people. 

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below. 

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II

C. Both I and II


Q94. Match the following folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II):

List-I                                         List-II             

  1. Hacha Kekan              1. Dimasa
  2. Hanaghora                  2. Karbi 
  3. Bisuyo Jama Dance  3. Rabha
  4. Baidima                       4. Deuri


D. a2, d3, c4, d1

 

Q95. Which of the following pairs is /are incorrectly matched?

  1. Finance Commission of India: Constitutional body
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India: Statutory body
  3. NITI Aayog: Constitutional body
  4. Reserve Bank of India: Statutory body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and III only
  2. II and IV only
  3. III only
  4. IV only

C. III only

 

Q96. Which of the following groups of places is/are located on the North bank of Brahmaputra?

  1. Bijni Jogighopa, Raha, Titabor
  2. Hajo, Sarthebari, Moran Bihpuria
  3. Bongaigaon, Dekhla-juli, Gohpur
  4. Sualkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, Narayanpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II
  2. III and IV
  3. I and III
  4. IV only


B. III and IV only

Q97. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the popular sobriquets by which they are known (List-II):

List- I                                               List-II

  1. Anandiram Das                 1. Geetikavi
  2. Parbati Prasad Baruah    2. Lauha Manab
  3. Bishnuram Medhi            3. Bonkonwar
  4. Hemchandra Baruah      4. Tyagbir

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

D. a3, b1, c2, d4

 

Q98. Which of the following is/are correct about ‘eRupee’?

  1. It refers to Rupee circulation in Europe. 
  2. It refers to Exchange rate of Rupee. 
  3. It is digital Rupee App of the State Bank of India. 
  4. It is the Central Bank Digital Currency. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I and II
  2. I and IV
  3. III only
  4. IV only

C. III only

Q99. The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to have multiple benefits for India. Which of the following is/are in the lists of benefits?

  1. It is a new and more efficient way for India to export its goods to Europe. 
  2. It would make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.
  3. The construction and maintenance of the Economic corridor would create millions of new jobs in India. 
  4. The construction of the new corridor will be under the supervision of the World Trade Organisations. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. I only
  2. I and II
  3. I, II and III
  4. I, II and IV only


C. I, II and III

 

Q100. Match the following places (List-I) with their districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I                              List-II

  1. Sitajakhala          1. Dima Hasao
  2. Silghat                 2. Nagaon
  3. Kulsi                     3. Kamrup 
  4. Semkhor            4. Morigaon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

C. a4, b3, c2, d1

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