APDCL Previous Years Question Paper for Asst Accounts Officer AAO, OFA – Paper 1

APDCL Previous Years Question Paper for Asst Accounts Officer AAO

Previous year exam for APDCL AAO had two papers, viz. Paper 1 contains General English and General Knowledge and Paper 2 had General Mathematics and one of optional subjects of Accountancy/Statistics/Mathematics.

Here Paper 1 (General English and General Knowledge) is discussed.



Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (Q No. 1-10)

The greatest enemy of mankind, as people have discovered, is not science but war. Science merely reflects the prevailing social forces. It is found that, when there is peace science is constructive; when there is war, science is perverted to destructive ends. The weapons which science gives us do not necessarily cause war; they make war increasingly terrible. Till now, it has brought us to the doorstep of doom. Our main problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war- to substitute law for force, and international government for anarchy in the relations for one nation with another. That is a job in which everybody must participate, including the scientists. But the bombing of Hiroshima suddenly woke us up to the fact that we have very little time. The hour is late and our work has scarcely begun. Now we are face to face with an urgent question-‘Can education and tolerance, understanding and creative intelligence run fast enough to keep us abreast with our own mounting capacity to destroy’? That is the question that we shall have to answer one way or the other in this generation. Science must help us in arriving at the answer. But the main decision lies within ourselves.

1. According to the writer, the real enemy of mankind is not science but war, because
a) Science merely invents weapons with which war is fought.
b) Science during wars becomes destructive.
c) The weapons invented by science necessarily leads to war.
d) The weapons invented by science do not cause war, though these make war more destructive.

2. War can be stopped, if
a) Science is not allowed to push us to destruction.
b) We replace force and lawlessness by law and international government.
c) Science is restricted to be used only during war time.
d) Weapons invented by science are not used to launch a war.

3. According to the passage, the main problem we are faced with is to-
a) Stop science from reflecting social forces.
b) Stop scientific activities altogether.
c) Abolish war.
d) Prevent scientists from participating in destructive activities.

4. Our capacity to destroy can be kept under control by
a) Encouraging social forces.
b) Education and broadmindedness.
c) Constructive thinking.
d) Both b) & c) above together.

5. The expression ‘bring to the doorstep of doom’ means
a) Lead to the threshold of a new destiny.
b) Indulge in a ruinous activity.
c) Introduces to an unpredictable future.
d) Leads close to death and destruction.

6. Which one of the following statements is not implied in the passage?
a) People needlessly blame science for war.b) Science is misused for destructive purposes
c) Science or the weapons invented by it do not add to the horrors of war.
d) The role of science in ensuring world peace is subsidiary to that of man.

7. The phrase ‘our work has scarcely begun’ in the passage implies that our work
a) Has not yet begun.
b) Has just begun.
c) Has been halfway through.
d) Has begun but not completed.

8. The expression ‘keep abreast’ in the passage means
a) Keep at a distance.
b) Keep side by side.
c) Hold out a challenge.
d) Prevent from escaping.

9. Which one of the following will be the most suitable title of the passage?
a) Science and social forces.
b) Science and the horrors of war.
c) Science and the problem of world peace.
d) Science and man

10. The job in which everybody must participate is
a) To curb science.
b) To prefer international government.
c) To establish anarchy in international relations.
d) To do nothing of the above.

Directions: in each of the questions there is a sentence of which some parts are jumbled up. You are to rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R & S to produce the current sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly (Q No.11-20)

11. There was
P. needed for its everyday life
Q. a time when each family
R. for itself most of the things it
S. actually produced

12. We have to
P. as we see it
Q. speak the truth
R. there is falsehood and darkness
S. even if all around us

13. The majestic mahogany table
P. belongs to an old prince
Q. which had one leg missing
R. who is now impoverished
S. but not without some pride

14. We should have a
P. to life, centered on positive values
Q. more comprehensive approach
R. as an individual is
S. also a part of the society

15. If you need help –
P. promptly and politely
Q. ask for attendants
R. to help our customers
S. who have instructions

16. I shall go –
P. my work here
Q. to Kolkata
R. I have finished
S. after

17. I saw
P. a dead bull
Q. while walking across
R. the street
S. yesterday

18. Little
P. that he had been let down
Q. stood by all these years
R. did he realize
S. by a colleague whom he had

19. It was well known that
P. the effect
Q. is very bad
R. on the children
S. of cinema

20. He was so kind and generous that
P. he not only
Q. made others do so
R. but also
S. helped them himself

Directions: In the following questions each sentence contains blanks which are to be filled in with correct preposition or set of prepositions as demanded by the question.(21-30)

21. ______ the corner of the street stood a policeman ______ an umbrella, shivering in the rain.
a) on, with b) near, under c) by, in d) at, under

22. ______ the cover of darkness, the enemy crept ______ the hill.
a) in, over b) in, along c) under, up d) through, upon

23. The blind man was feeling ______ the table.
a) in b) for c) by d) out

24. She was waiting for you ______ the table this morning.
a) on b) at c) for d) with

25. You must dispense ______ your gardener.
a) in b) of c) at d) with

26. ______ my words, I am telling you nothing ______ the truth.
a) By, from b) upon, but c) on, outside d) by, but

27. His conduct is bad and his honesty is not ______ suspicion.
a) above b) beyond c) under d) in

28. We must adapt ourselves ______ our circumstances.
a) with b) in c) to d) by

29. Children are the delight ______ the house
a) for b) of c) to d) with

30. He is unreliable; do not count ______ his help.
a) for b) on c) in d) about


Directions: Given below are ten incomplete sentences. Below each sentence you will find words or phrases marked a), b), c),d). Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence. (Q No. 31-40)

31. Travellers ______ their reservations well in advance if they want to travel during the Diwali holidays.
a) had better to get b) had to get better
c) had better get d) better had get

32. What a sensation it would cause if it ______ now discovered that such a vital diary had been left behind.
a) is b) be c) was d) were

33. We felt as if the ground were ______ beneath our feet.
a) bursting b) sinking c) slipping d) smashing

34. I could not ______ what he wanted to say.
a) make up b) make out c) make in d) make away

35. When I saw him through the window ______
a) I have run out to open the door.
b) I ran out to open the door.
c) I am running out to open the door.
d) I should run out to open the door

36. If I take a state roadways bus, I will get late ______?
a) isn’t it b) won’t I c) will I d) is it

37. She is accustomed ______ doing work under any type of circumstances.
a) to b) with c) of d) in

38. He has such good manners that he can easily ______ a gentleman
a) pass out b) pass for c) pass in d) pass on

39. What you have done ______ no excuse.
a) admits b) admits to c) admits of d) admits about

40. He was caught red-handed and could not ______ the charges.
a) refute b) refuse c) rebuke d) revoke


Directions: In the following questions, out of four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences (Q NO. 41-50)

41. Words written on a tomb.
a) Epithet b) Epigraph c) Epitaph d) Memorial

42. Something no longer in use.
a) Desolate b) Absolute c) Obsolete d) Primitive

43. Belief in opinion contrary to what is generally accepted.
a) Unbelief b) Superstition c) Nonconformity d) Heresy

44. One who believes in God.
a) Devotee b) Theist c) Agnostic d) Believer

45. A person who can be cheated easily.
a) Credulous b) Faithful c) Client d) Idiot

46. Animals and birds living in groups.
a) Consolidated b) Gregarious c) Herd d) Cluster

47. A child nursed or brought up by one who is not its parent.
b) Stepchild b) Foster c) Orphan d) Adopted

48. The act or practice of sleep walking.
a) Narcotic b) Dreamer c) Somnambulism d) Fastidious

49. One who knows many languages.
a) Linguist b) Stylist c) Polyglot d) Debator

50. The study of ancient writing.
a) Paleography b) Philosophy c) Lexicography d) Calligraphy


Directions: In each of the following sentences one part is underlined. Which of the phrases a), b), c) given below each sentence should replace the underlined part? If the sentence is correct requiring no improvement choose d). (Q No. 51-60)

51. The magician confidently asked the crowd if they thought he was right and the crowd shouted that they did.
a) that he did b) that he is c) that he was d) no correction needed

52. I asked him what is his name.
a) what his name was b) what was his name
c) what is your name d) no correction needed

53. Hardly he had arrived when the house caught fire.
a) He had hardly arrived b) Hardly had he arrived c) Scarcely he had arrived d) No correction needed

54. Why we do not meet to discuss in detail next Friday?
a) Why do we not b) Why we did not c) Why did we not d) No correction needed

55. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.25 pm so that we can reach the station in time.
a) were b) must be c) should have d) are

56. We must take it granted that Bina will not come for today’s class.
a) taking it granted b) take it for granted c) took it as granted c) no correction needed

57. During his long discourse he did not touch that point.
a) did not touch upon b) did not touch on c) did not touch of d) no correction needed

58. You have come here with a view to insult me.
a) of insulting me b) for insulting me c) to insulting me d) no correction needed

59. He has not and can never be in the good books of his employer because he does not have honesty.
a) has not and cannot be b) had not and can never be c) has not been and can never be d) no correction needed

60. This time my brother is coming to Guwahati from America for an extending stay.
a) extensive b) extended c) extension d) no correction needed


Directions: In each of the following sentences certain parts have been underlined and marked a, b, c. There may be error in one of the underline parts. If there is no error choose d. (Q No 61-70)

61. There is no(a) objection to him joining(b) our party provided he is willing to fit(c) in with the party’s economic policy. d no error

62. Due to(a) the trucker’s strike, the vegetable vendors were doing(b) about half of the business that they were(c) doing before.  d no error

63. My best friend(a) and advisor(b) have made(c) this useful suggestion. d no error

64. He did not(a) eat the mango because it tasted bitterly(b) and was slightly rotten(c).
d no error

65. Of all(a) the friends I have had(b) he is the most helpful and less arrogant(c). d no error

66. He hesitated to accept(a) the post because he did not think the salary would not be enough(b) for a b a man with a family of ten(c). d no error

67. What makes matters(a) worse is that many a times(b) the public address is not clearly audible(c)d no error

68. If you will work hard(a) you will surely(b) get a seat(c) in any medical college in Assam. d no error

69. Soon after(a) their child was born he went off(b) leaving her in the lurch(c). d no error

70. The three last chapters(a) of this book are(b) very interesting(c). d no error


Directions: In the sentences given below some words or phrases are italicized. For each italicized part four words or phrases labelled a), b), c), d). Select the word nearest in meaning to the italicized part. (Q No. 71-75)

71. I wrote to him as lately as last week.
a) immediately b) early c) recently d) late

72. Many of his friends avoid him because he is so garrulous.
a) unreasonable b) quarrelsome c) talkative d) proud

73. Some people are extremely fastidious in their choice of dress.
a) careless b) pompous c) fussy d) decent

74. The crowd was getting restive.
a) restful b) tired c) excited d) restless

75. They are sure to steal a march upon their competitors.
a) outshine b) defy c) challenge d) resist


Directions: In each sentence given below one part is italicized followed by a), b), c), d). From these choices choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning of the italicized word. (Q No. 76-80)

76. The refreshment we received at the end of the meeting was very frugal.
a) lavish b) exorbitant c) wholesome d) light

77. The chairman rebuked the manager for not supervising the work of his juniors.
a) praised b) criticized d) awarded d) dismissed.

78. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems the country is facing.
a) indefinite b) vague c) idealistic d) optimistic

79. Unsettled conditions in the land led to a steady exodus of people.
a) invasion b) entry c) expulsion d) immigration

80. The drug will have pernicious effect on your health.
a) beneficial b) ruinous c) prolonged d) quick


Directions: Fill in the blank in each sentence below with the most appropriate word/phrase from the four choices marked a), b), c), d). (81-90)

81. The child kept on crying while it ______.
a) is bathed b) was being bathed c) was bathed d) is being bathed

82. Mr. Sharma has earned a lot of money and now he ______ his poor cousins.
a) shows off b) looks upon c) looks down upon d) looks upto

83. ______ come to my rescue I would have been killed by the dacoits.
a) If he did not b) Had he not c) Having not d) His having not

84. A ______ firms are having trouble with labour relations.
a) considerable amount of b) great deal of
c) large part of d) great many

85. You would have succeeded if you ______ upon my advice
a) acted b) had acted c) have acted d) would have acted

86. Our life is such that if we wish to enjoy pleasures, we must also ______ pains.
a) deny b) neglect c) ignore d) endure

87. They were not interested in ______ your problem.
a) discussing about b) discussing c) discussing on d) discussing for

88. It is not possible for an ordinary mortal to ______ all these figures to memory.
a) retain b) hoard c) keep d) commit

89. Do you remember ______ her at my house last year?
a) of meeting b) having met c) to meet d) about meeting

90. He is so ______ of his own idea that he will not entertain any suggestion from others.
a) enamoured b) hopeful c) jealous d) enchanted


Directions: Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with most suitable word from the choices given under the passage. (Q No 91-100)

The prices in the domestic __91__ continue to rule high in the __92__ year despite the expectation of a __93__ production as compared to the previous year. According to the preliminary assessment __94__ on the weather __95__ in recent months, tea output in 2016 may reach 1000 million kg as __96__ 950 million kg last year. During the past three months, tea prices have generally shown an __97__. Unlike last year, when tea prices rose dramatically, this year prices seem to have __98__ at a rather high level. In the subsequent four months, the __99__ average price showed a downtrend but in September, the prices have __100__ hardened to a considerable extent.

91. a) profit b) market c) circle d) sector

92. a) first b) current c) firstly d) last

93. a) large b) higher c) lower d) optimum

94. a) shared b) strategy c) carried d) based

95. a) outbreak b) conditions c) forecast d) pattern

96. a) per b) against c) compared d) above

97. a) uptrend b) upgrade c) reduction d) increment

98. a) increased b) surfaced c) stablised d) moderated

99. a) weekly b) monthly c) yearly d) daily

100. a) then b) than c) never d) again



Answer the following by marking the correct response from (a), (b), (c) and (d)

101. Asomiya Lorar Mitra was authored by –
(a) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan
(b) H.K. Barpujari
(c) S.K. Bhuyan
(d) Anundooram Barooah

102. The Aligarh Movement wanted to
(a) Revive Islam
(b) Purify Islam
(c) Partition India
(d) Wage a religious war

103. Utilitarianism was a political philosophy attributed to
(a) Jeremy Bentham
(b) Lord Macaulay
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Ripon

104. Which one is an anti-cyclone?
(a) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(b) High pressure system with clockwise wind in the northern hemisphere
(c) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in the southern hemisphere
(d) High pressure system with clockwise wind in the southern hemisphere

105. Which is not a major port on the east coast?
(a) Paradeep
(b) Kolkata
(c) Cochin
(d) Vishakhapatnam

106. How far apart are rails in a broad gauge line system?
(a) 1.676 metres
(b) 1.576 metres
(c) 1.845 metres
(d) 1.453

107. When was the postal department set up in India?
(a) 1837
(b) 1854
(c) 1911
(d) 1921

108. For how long can a member of the council of ministers in the state hold office without being a member of the state legislature?
(a) One year
(b) Nine months
(c) Six months
(d) Three months

109. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up
(a) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(b) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) Through a resolution of the provisional government
(d) By the Indian Congress

110. In which state was Panchayati Raj first introduced?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan

111 .The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(a) Formed part of the original constitution
(b) Was added to the constitution by the First Amendment
(c) Was added to the constitution by the 24th Amendment
(d) Was added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment

112 .The local MLAs and MPs are ex-offiicio members of?
(a) Zilla Parishad
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Panchayat
(d) All these bodies

113. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in the year
(a) 1935
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
(d) 1951

114. A tax that takes away a higher proportion of one’s income as the income rises is termed as
(a) Indirect tax
(b) Proportional tax
(c) Regressive tax
(d) Progressive tax

115. Foot and mouth disease occurs in
(a) cattle
(b) cattle and sheep
(c) cattle and pigs
(d) cattle, sheep and pigs

116. The Prime Minister holds office
(a) For a fixed term of five years
(b) During the pleasure of the President
(c) As long as he enjoys the confidence of the parliament
(d) As long as he enjoys the confidence of the council of ministers

117. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during the British rule?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

118. What is meant by the ‘roaring forties’
(a) Tides around 40 degree
(b) Seasonal winds over Australia
(c) Westerlies between 40 and 60 degree latitudes North and south
(d) A country with most people in the middle age group

119. The rocks in the Himalayan system are mainly
(a) sedimentary
(b) igneous
(c) plutonic
(d) none of these

120. Which of the following political party enjoys the distinction of having formed the first non-Congress Government in an Indian state?
(a) DMK in Tamil Nadu
(b) Akalis in Punjab
(c) Communists in Kerala
(d) Janata Party in Karnataka

121. Directive Principles in Indian Constitution are
(a) Directives to the state to pursue a policy of non-alignment
(b) Positive instructions to government to work for the attainment of set objectives
(c) Negative injunctions to government to refrain from encroaching on the freedom of the people
(d) Directives to the state to enhance the international prestige of the country

122. The President of India can declare national emergency
(a) Only in the event of foreign attack
(b) Only in the event of armed rebellion
(c) Due to threat arising on account of foreign attack or armed rebellion
(d) In none of these cases

123. Which President of India held office for two consecutive terms?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Both (a) and (b)

124. Vinegar is acidic in nature due to the presence of
(a) Citric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Acetic acid

125. Farrel’s Law is concerned with the
(a) Direction of winds
(b) Velocity of winds
(c) Intensity of waves
(d) Thermal flow

126. The Noble Peace Prize 2015 was awarded to
(a) Kailash Satyatarthi
(b) Kailash Satyatarthi and Mallala jointly
(c) National Dialogue Quartet
(d) None of these

127. A gas which is not present in normal samples of air is
(a) neon
(b) chlorine
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) helium

128. What is incoming solar radiation known as?
(a) radiation
(b) refraction
(c) insolation
(d) reflection

129. The gland that contains the body’s thermostat is
(a) pineal
(b) pituitary
(c) thyroid
(d) hypothalamus

130. A catalyst is a substance which
(a) Stops a chemical reaction
(b) Helps initiate a reaction
(c) Increases the speed of a reaction
(d) Decreases the speed of a reaction

131. In which sequence did the Europeans arrive in India?
(A) French (B) British (C) Portuguese (D) Dutch
(a) CDBA
(b) CADB
(c) DCBA
(d) BCDA

132. Who were the first kings to issue gold coins in India?
(a) Mauryas
(b) Indo-Greeks
(c) Guptas
(d) Kushans

133. Who is generally referred to as the ‘Grand Old man of India’?
(a) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

134. The seats of power of the Holkar and Bhonsle were respectively at
(a) Indore and Nagpur
(b) Baroda and Nagpur
(c) Baroda and Indore
(d) Nagpur and Indore

135. India Divided was authored by
(a) Firoz Shah Mehta
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

136. Hirakud multi-purpose project is on the river
(a) Chambal
(b) Godavari
(c) Sutlej
(d) Mahanadi

137. Who commented, “ The Cripps’ Mission was a post-dated cheque…”?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Sardar Patel

138. An object weighs most in
(a) air
(b) water
(c) hydrogen
(d) vacuum

139. Raindrops are spherical due to
(a) viscosity of water
(b) surface tension
(c) continuous evaporation
(d) air friction

140. Which of the following is not included in Mughal paintings?
(a) Islamic theology
(b) Hunting scenes
(c) Flowers and trees
(d) Portraits

141. Which crop will be ideal in an area with annual rainfall of more than 200 cms and sloping hills?
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Maize
(d) Tea

142. Which of the following classes participated the least in the Indian national Movement?
(a) Capitalists
(b) Princes of states
(c) Government officials
(d) Peasants

143. Proteins are made up from
(a) sugars
(b) fatty acids
(c) amino acids
(d) hydroxy acids

144. Match the following
A. Chalukyas 1. Madurai
B. Pallavas 2. Kanauj
C. Harsha 3. Badami
D. Pandyas 4. Kanchipuram
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 3 2 4

145. Which of the following is not true about Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) It regulates the currency and credit system of India
(b) Foreign exchange reserves are kept by RBI
(c) One rupee notes are issued by RBI
(d) It formulates the monetary policy of India

146. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank is in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Singapore
(c) Manila
(d) Bangkok

147. Which of the following about the Football World Cup is incorrect?
(a) The Football World Cup is organised by FIFA
(b) The World Cup is called ‘Jules Rimet Cup’
(c) The first Football World Cup was organised in 1931
(d) The first Football World Cup was held in Uruguay

148. The 18th Asian Games will be held in
(a) Jakarta
(b) Colombo
(c) South Korea
(d) Kuala Lampur

149. Which of the following venues and years regarding Cricket World Cup is wrongly matched?
(a) 1975 – England
(b) 1979 – Australia
(c) 1983 – England
(d) 1987 – India

150. Find out the wrong match in the following newspapers and their country of publication
(a) The Age – Australia
(b) The Gazette – Canada
(c) The Courier – United States of America
(d) International Herald Tribune – France


APDCL Previous Years Question Paper for Asst Accounts Officer AAO – Paper 2

APDCL Test Series 2018

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