Write answers to these Questions, Review others’ Answer, Ask Doubts and Discuss
Q1. India recently invited leaders of 10 ASEAN nation as guests of honor at the Republic Day. Discuss the importance of India’s relationship with ASEAN countries. (250 Words)
Q2. What do you Understand by Big Data? Discuss its relevance in governance policy formulation. (250 Words)
Q3. Explain the major challenges Indian Economy is facing currently. Also discuss some measures to overcome those challenges. (250 Words)
NOTE: Learners please write the answers and review others’ answer , which will ultimately improve the answer writer, reviewer and most importantly the answer itself.
Govt. of Assam’s Panchayat & Rural Development came up with the 945 posts of Tax Collector cum Road Mahorar, Gaon Panchayat Secretary, Gram Sevak & Gram Sevika, Junior Asstt. (Anchalik Panchayat), Extension Officer (Panchayat), Jr. Asst. HQ
Write answers to these Questions, Review others’ Answer, Ask Doubts and Discuss
Q1. India recently became the 43rd Member of Australia Group. What is Australia Group and how this membership is significant for India. (250 Words)
Q2. What is the Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal (BBIN) Motor Vehicles Agreement? How this agreement can b beneficial for North East India. (250 Words)
Q3. Maharashtra becomes first state to unveil Public Cloud Policy. What is cloud storage and what are the benefits of such policy. (150 Words)
NOTE: Learners please write the answers and review others’ answer , which will ultimately improve the answer writer, reviewer and most importantly the answer itself.
26 January, Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India.
The Constitution was adopted by the Indian Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January 1950 with a democratic government system, completing the country’s transition towards becoming an independent republic. 26 January was chosen as the Republic day because it was on this day in 1930 when Declaration of Indian Independence (Purna Swaraj) was proclaimed by the Indian National Congress as opposed to the Dominion status offered by British Regime.
Background
India became independent of the United Kingdom on August 15, 1947. India did not have a permanent constitution at this time. The drafting committee presented the constitution’s first draft to the national assembly on November 4, 1947. The national assembly signed the final English and Hindi language versions of the constitution on January 24, 1950.
India’s constitution came into effect on Republic Day, January 26, 1950. This date was chosen as it was the anniversary of Purna Swaraj Day, which was held on January 26, 1930.The constitution gave India’s citizens the power to govern themselves by choosing their own government. Dr Rajendra Prasad took oath as India’s first president at the Durbar Hall in the Government House, followed by a residential drive along a route to the Irwin Stadium, where he unfurled India’s national flag. Ever since the historic day, January 26 is celebrated with festivities and patriotic fervor across India.
India adopted the constitution on November 26, 1949, which came into force on January 26, 1950, marking the country’s first Republic Day.
Celebrations
The main Republic Day celebration is held in the national capital, New Delhi, at the Rajpath before the President of India. On this day, ceremonious parades take place at the Rajpath, which are performed as a tribute to India; its unity in diversity and rich cultural heritage.
Another new addition to this year’s parade will be that of 113 women from the Border Security Force, or BSF, who will roar across the Rajpath performing breathtaking stunts on motorcycles. The women squad has been named Seema Bhavani or “the border braves”. The women contingent will showcase 16 types of stunts, including “Pyramid”, “Fish Riding”, “Shaktiman”, “Bull Fighting” and “Seema Prahari”.
Republic Day parade chief guest
As India celebrates its 69th Republic Day today, for the first time, 10 leaders of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN will be the chief guests at the ceremonial parade, held at Rajpath, in the heart of national capital Delhi. In 2018, Ten guests (Heads of ASEAN states) Sultan Hassanal Bolkiah Brunei, Prime Minister Hun Sen of Cambodia, President Joko Widodo of Indonesia, Prime Minister Thongloun Sisoulith of Laos, Prime Minister Najib Razak of Malaysia, State Counsellor Daw Aung San Suu Kyi of Myanmar, President Rodrigo Roa Duterte of Philippines, Prime Minister Lee Hsien Loong of Singapore, Prime Minister Prayuth Chan-ocha of Thailand and Prime Minister Nguyễn Xuân Phúc of Vietnam are invited.
Write answers to these Questions, Review others’ Answer, Ask Doubts and Discuss
Q1. Explain the procedure for appointment of Judges in Supreme Court. (250 Words)
Q2. Discuss how Aadhar poses potential threat to private and very sensitive data of individual citizens. Discuss the steps need to be taken to address various concerns related to it. (250 Words)
Q3. Entrepreneurship can curb youth unemployment to a large extent. Discuss the role of Government in promoting entrepreneurship in India. (250 Words)
NOTE: Learners please write the answers and review others’ answer , which will ultimately improve the answer writer, reviewer and most importantly the answer itself.
APSC Mains Exam – General English Question Paper Pattern Analysis
The compulsory English paper is of 300 Marks, which makes it very important part of scoring well in APSC Mains exam. This paper needs comparatively less attention and preparation efforts ( though most candidates make no preparation of at all ), but we should prepare ourselves to the required level, also because almost all questions in this paper is answerable by everyone writing the exam, all the questions we have been writing as a part of English subject of our academic career.
We will try to analyse the question pattern of recent years ( and hope the pattern to remain same this year also), to get an understanding of what types of various questions are gonna come in the paper. Some changes were done since last two years paper, but they were of very minor changes, other than the no. of essay being increased from one topic of 100 marks to 2 topics of 50 marks each.
Total 300 Marks
Precis – 40 Marks
Original Paragraph given is of around 550 words on which candidates are asked to write a Precis, though they have not mentioned the word limit but we have to generalise it as one-third of the original passage.
So we can assume it 1/3 of (550 words) = 170-190 words.
Essays (2 Nos.) – 100 Marks
As we know previously APSC used to ask one essay of 100 marks, but now they ask two shorter essays of two topics from one topic from two group of topics each. Which makes it easier as candidates need to write less about one topic and this has also increased their options of selecting topic.
Each essays are to be written at about 400-500 words.
We have discusses this topics in details separately in these pages below
As in the most exam, this paper to have this reading comprehension passage of 650-700 words, based on which around 8 Questions are asked and one question ask to write a summary of the passage in about (150-200 words). This part should be the easy for most of you.
Amplification – 20 Marks
A no. of one-liner statements are given and you are asked to write an explanation on any one of the given statements in about 150-200 words. Nothing Else.
Paragraphwriting – 10 Marks
Asked to write a paragraph in about 150 words. That’s it.
GrammarSection – 50 Marks
This section is very ease for those who knows it and very tough for those who don’t know. So to prepare this section well, go through any basic grammar books that you might have studies in school/college. (which was collecting dust till date, if not eaten by rat)
Main Sections covered under grammar are as follows
Frame Sentence
Synonym&antonym
Rewrite sentences
correct sentence
verb usage
Report/Letter Writing – 30 Marks
This is the last section of your English paper. You are mostly asked to write one of the following
(Write your name here)
(Your Address)
(City)
(Zip Code)
To
The District Collector
(Name of the Magazine)
(Address)
(City)
(Zip Code)
Sir/Madam,
Subject: Regarding Loudspeaker Issue in (name of the colony)
This letter is to bring into notice the Loudspeakers that are becoming a bog noise pollution in our colony. It is quite a fact that a colony like ours has old age people and kids who cannot tolerate such nuisance all the time.
Besides the so many requests we put up to the youth committee that is turning on the Loudspeakers every evening, the problems still prevails in our colony.
Please take into consideration the lot many problems like loss of sleep, lack of concentration to study and health hazards that people in our colony are facing due to the Loudspeaker issue. Kindly take necessary actions and help us get rid of the noise pollution as early as possible.
Write answers to these Questions, Review others’ Answer, Ask Doubts and Discuss
Q1. In the recently published Global Hunger Index 2017, India was ranked 100. Discuss the reasons behind this dismal state and also mention the steps Government has taken to improve the scenario. (250 Words)
Q2. Explain the distress situation of most of Indian farmers. What are the steps taken recently by the Govt in this regard? (250 Words)
Q3. Discuss why Bitcoins and other crypto-currencies are rapidly gaining popularity in recent time. Why Indian Govt and RBI are concerned and skeptical of this event? (250 Words)
NOTE: Learners please write the answers and review others’ answer , which will ultimately improve the answer writer, reviewer and most importantly the answer itself.
Here we analyse old question paper of Assam Secretariat Service 2013 Paper I, which has three parts (English, GK and Quants), which will be definitely of great help in understanding the requirement and standard of the question paper of Phase I (Written Test).
Paper – I: Question Paper comprises three parts
Part A: General English : 30 questions
Part B: General Knowledge : 40 questions
Part C: Quantitative Aptitude : 30 questions
Paper I
Part A: General English (30 Qs)
In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicized in the sentence. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the italicized idiom/phrase:
1. Pt. Nehru was born with a sliver spoon in his mouth.
(a) born in a family of nationalists
(b) born in a middle class family
(c) born in a wealthy family
(d) born in a royal family
Ans.(c)
2. The thief took to his heels when he saw the policeman on the beat.
(a) had some pain in his heels
(b) ran away from the scene
(c) confronted the policeman
(d) walked away
Ans.(b)
3. The cricket match proved to be a big draw
(a) a keen contest
(b) a huge attraction
(c) a lovely spectacle
(d) a game without any result
Ans.(b)
In the following questions out to four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences:
4. A person with a long experience of any occupation.
Read the sentences below to find out whether there is any error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of a sentence. The number of that part is the answer.
Q9. One of the reasons (a)/of my leaving earlier company(b) / was lack of(c) / facilities provided there(d)
Ans. (b)
10. Can you explain to me (a)/Why did he not (b)/ comply with the instruction(c)/ I gave him(d).
Ans. (a)
11. If you would have(a) / told me earlier (b)/ would not have (c)/submitted my papers(d).
Ans. (c)
12. Given a choice (a)/ I will prefer working (b)/ in field (c)/ to working in office (d).
Ans. (d)
13. I want to know (a)/ as to why (b)/ you did not (c)/ attend your office yesterday (d)
Ans. (b)
14. He went there (a) / with a view to (b)/ find out the truth (c)/about yesterday’s meeting (d)
Ans.(b)
15. We threw out (a)/some old furniture (b)/ so that the new TV set (c)/ has enough space (d)
Ans.(d)
Choose from the answer choices given below the word which is same in meaning as the word given in capital letter:
24. The German force lost no time in retreat lest they ________ be cut off and then surrounded
(a) would (b) should (c) might (d) could
Ans.(d)
25. He was frightened ______
(a) to be killed (b) to being killed (c) for being killed (d) of being killed
Ans.(d)
In each of the following questions, there is a sentence, of which some parts are jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled PQRS to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence from the alternatives given below:
26. The man looked…
P. to make sure
Q. all around him
R. as if anxious
S. that he was not being watched
(a) RPQS (b) RQSP (c) QSRP (d) QRPS
Ans.(d)
27. An explorer….
P. must study his map
Q. efficiently
R. so that he will be able to plan his trip
S. very carefully
(a) PSRQ (b) RSPQ (c) PQRS (d) RQPS
Ans. (a)
28. The girl….
P. declined to marry John
Q. who was both beautiful and intelligent
R. although he loved her truly
S. because he was poor
(a) PRSQ (b) QPSR (c) PSRQ (d) QPRS
Ans.(b)
29. Modern advertising techniques …..
P. by their daydreaming qualities
Q. just as the movies do
R. give the customers
S. certain vicarious satisfaction
(a) PRQS (b) RSPQ (c) RPQS (d) PQRS
Ans.(b)
30. Finally my mother comes downstairs …..
P. and my father being engaged in conversation with my grandfather
Q. becomes uneasy
R. all dressed up
S. not knowing whether to greet my mother or continue the conversation.
(a) RPQS (b) RQSP (c) QRPS (d) QRSP
Ans.(a)
Part B: General Knowledge (40 Qs)
Q31. Article which provide the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution
Ans. Article 368
Q32. One difference b/n Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans. FR are justiciable, while DPSP are not
Q33. ‘Zero Hour’ in Parliament used to mean
Ans. Period before Parliament session begins
(Zero Hour may be defined as the interregnum between the end of Question Hour and the beginning of the regular listed business in the House. In other words it is the time which begins at 12 o’clock after Question.)
Q34. Tides in oceans are caused by
Ans. Gravitational pull of moon and sun
Q35. Black Holes are celestial bodies which have a strong
Ans. Gravitational force
Q36. In Einstein Equation E=mc2 , c denote
Ans. Velocity of light
Q37. ‘Sustainable development’ is
Ans. Concept of meeting the needs of present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Q38. Intellectual Property Rights means
Ans. Rules that protect the owners of content through copyright patents, trade marks etc.
Q39. C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for physics in 1929 for
Ans. Invention of ‘Raman Effect’
Q40. Diff. b/n Indian standard time and Greenwich Mean Time is
Ans. 5 ½ hours
Q41. World Environment Day is observed on
Ans. 5 June
Q42. Causes of earthquakes is mainly
Ans. Tectonic forces
Q43. The rise of sun in the east and setting in the west is due to
Ans. Rotation of earth about it’s axis
Q44. Right to Information Act comes into force on
Ans. 12 October 2005
Q45. UNO was established in
Ans. 1945
Q46. ‘Yandaboo Treaty’ b/n the Burmese and the British was signed on
Ans. 24 February 1826
Q47. The first Viceroy of India after power was transferred from East India Company to the Crown was
Ans. Lord Canning
Q48. Assamese novel ‘Mayabritta’ has been authored by
Ans. Rita Choudhury
Q49. Who directed the film ‘Maine Gandhi Ko Nahin Mara’?
Ans. Jahnu Barua
Q50. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika was conferred upon Dada Saheb Phalke award in the year
Ans. 1992
Q51. Prasar Bharati came into existence with AIR and Doordarshan as its constituents in the year
Ans. 1997
Q52. As per the 2011 census, India’s total population is
Ans. 1207 million
Q53. What is 49th parallel?
Ans. Border line b/n USA and Canada
Q54. Pituitary gland is located at the base of
Ans. Brain
Q55. 1 GB is
Ans. 1024 MB
Q56. ‘Junk Mail’ refers to
Ans. unwanted or unsolicited advertising or promotional mail
(From given options – (c) Unidentified mail)
Q57. Which of the following is not an India author writing in English
Ans. Sunil Gangopadhyaya
( Other options were Arup Kr Dutta, Sanjoy Hazrika and Amitabh Ghosh)
Q58. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India
Ans. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(Now NITI Aayog has replaced the erstwhile Planning Commission)
Q59. When did India initiated the process of economic reform in a comprehensive way?
Ans. 1991
Q60. What is Agmark?
Ans. Test of purity in agricultural products like veg oil etc.
Q61. BPO means
Ans. Business Process Outsourcing
Q62. Who was the President of first session of Assam Sahitya Sabha held at Sivasagar in 1917
Ans. Padmanath Gohain Baruah
( Sarat Chandra Goswami was the first secretary of the Sabha )
Q63. The Book ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is authored by
Ans. Nelson Mandela
Q64. Buddhist literature was written in
Ans. Pali
( Though many literature are written in Sanskrit and Prakrit also)
Q65. NCERT stand for
Ans. National Council of Educational Research and Training
Q66. ISBN stand for
Ans. International Standard Book Number
Q67. Who is India’s first ever Individual Olympic gold medalist?
Ans. Abhinav Bindra
Q68. Where will the 17th Asian games be held in 2014?
Ans. Incheon in South Korea
Q69. The captain of the Indian Football Team in 1948 London Olympics was from Assam. Who was he?
Ans. Talimeran Ao
( He was from Changki, Hills District of erstwhile Assam. He was India’s First Football Captain)
Q70. How many players are there in a Basketball team?
Ans. 5
OBSERVATION – Most questions came from topics Polity & Constitution (4), Geography (4), Science & Tech (7), Environment (2), Business & Economy (2), History (4), Assam Art & Literature (4), India Art & Literature (1), Current Affairs (3). So mainly focus on these topics.
Part C: Quantitative Aptitude (30 Qs)
Q71. In a class of 50 students. 10 take music, 26 take art, and 2 take both art and music. How many students in the class are not enrolled in either music or art?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24
Ans. (c)
(Sets and Union)
Q72. In a village, the ratio of male to female members is 7 to 3. If there are 210 female members in the village, what is the number of male members in the village?
(a) 90 (b) 147 (c) 280 (d) 490
Ans. (d)
(Ratio)
Q73. The ratio of the corresponding sides of two similar squares is 1 to 4. What is the ratio of the area of the smaller square to the area of the larger square?
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:8 (d) 1:16
Ans. (d)
(Ratio of area of squares)
Q74. Which of the following is a rational number?
(a) pi (b) square root of 2 (c) square root of 64 (d) none of these
Ans. (c)
(Number: Find rational number)
Q75. ‘It has two pairs of opposite sides parallel’. Which of the following make this open sentence true?
(a) parallelogram (b) trapezoid (c) rectangle (d) both (a) and (c)
Ans. (d)
(Characteristics of geometric figures)
Q76. A total of Rs. 450 is divided into equal shares. If Ridip receives four shares, Pradip receives three shares, and Bidisha receives the remaining two shares, how much money did Pradip receive?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 150 (c) Rs. 200 (d) Rs.250
Ans. (b)
(Simple division and share)
Q77. If you multiply an inequality by a negative number when should you reverse the inequality symbol?
(a) Always (b) Never (c) sometimes (d) Only when the negative number is a fraction
Ans. (a)
(Property of Inequality symbol)
Q78. Write ∛8 = 2 in its equivalent logarithmic form
Q82. If a pole 6 m high casts a shadow 2√3m log on the ground, then the Sun’s elevation is
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90⁰
Ans. (a)
(Trigonometry: Height and distance)
Q83. Find the two numbers whose product is 143 and sum is 24
(a) 13, 11 (b) 12, 12 (c) 8, 16 (d) (d) none of these
Ans.(a)
(Numbers)
Q84. 300 marbles are distributed among a certain number of students. Had there been 10 more students, each would have received one marble less. Find the number of students.
(a) 40 (b) (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70
Ans.(b)
(Simple division and share)
Q85. The content of 3 cylinders each of radius 2 cm and height 1 cm is to be poured into a cone of height 9 cm. What is the radius of the cone?
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 1 cm
Ans. (a)
(Geometry: Volume of cylinder & cone)
Q86. What is the area of the sphere whose radius is 4 cm?
Q87. If n is an odd integer, which of the following must be an odd Integer? (a) n1 (b) n+2 (c) 3n+1 (d) 4n+1
Ans.(b)
(Number property)
Q88. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10, x, 7 is 8, the value of x will be
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 8
Ans.(b)
(Arithmetic mean)
Q89. [(389+99)² — (38999)²]/389×99) is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 488 (d) 290
Ans. (b)
(Calculation- power) – need to do it with shortcut formula
Q90. Which of the following is the divisibility test of 3?
(a) one’s place digit to even number
(b) one’s place digit is zero
(c) the sum of its digits is divisible by 3
(d) last two digits are even number
Ans. (c)
(Divisibility rule)
Q91. The hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is 6 cm more than twice the shortest side. If the third side is 2 cm less than the hypotenuse, what are the sides of the triangle in cm?
(Geometry: right angled triangle – Hypotenuse-height-base relation)
Q92. Find two consecutive odd positive integers, sum of whose squares is 290 (a) 13, 15 (b) 11, 13 (c) 17, 19 (d) 7, 9
Ans.(b)
(Numbers)
Q93. A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/h in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. What is the speed of the stream?
(a) 4 km/h (b) 5 km/h (c) 6 km/h (d) 8 km/h
Ans.(d)
(Relation b/n Speed in upstream and downstream and stream speed)
Q94.
A rectangular park has perimeters 80 m and the area 375 m2. Find the length and breadth of the park in metres
(a) 40, 10 (b) 20, 30 (c) 15, 25 (d) none of these
Ans. (c)
(Geometry: rectangle – area and perimeter)
Q95. Determine k such that the quadratic equation k(x — 2)x+ 6 = 0 has equal roots
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans.(d)
(Quadratic equation)
Q96. The arithmetic mean of the set of observations 1, 2, 3, 4, n is
(a) (n +1)/2 (b) (n/2) + 2 (c) n/2 (d) (n 1)/ 2
Ans. (a)
(Arithmetic mean)
Q97. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 150 degrees, then it is
Q100. A car travels 50 meters in 5 seconds. The rate in kilometre per hour is
(a) 42 (b) 36 (c) 30 (d) 24
Ans.(b)
(Time and speed)
OBSERVATION – Most questions came from topics Geometry (8), Ratio & proportion (3), Numbers (4), Average &Mean (2), Time & Speed(2), Equation (2), Trigonometry(2), Interest, Profit & Loss, work & man days, Permutation & Combination, Sq root & cube root, Sets & Union and Divisibility. So mainly focus on these topics.
1. The Written Examination will be held on 21.01.2018 in all the District Head Quarters of Assam. Duration of examination will be 3½ hours from 11.00 A.M. to 02.30 P.M.
2. The list of candidates who have been found eligible to sit for the Written Test will be uploaded in the website www.recruitmentaim.in. Applicants are advised to go to the above mentioned website and check the Written Examination venue in which they will have to appear.
3. All information/instructions to the candidates and the Admit Cards will be available in the above website from 10.01.2018.
4. Candidates should visit the above website and download their individual Admit Card. They should also download the instructions.
5. The Examination Centre is mentioned in the Admit Card. No change of Examination Centre will be entertained.
6. All candidates are required to produce their Admit card in the examination centre. Without Admit Card no candidate will be allowed to sit for the Written Examination.
7. No Mobile Phones, Calculators and any kind of communication devices will be allowed to carry inside the’ Examination Centre.
8. Eligibility of candidate is checked on the basis of the information provided in their Application Form. Being called for the Written Examination does not automatically render the candidate eligible for the post of Junior Administrative Assistant.
Selection Process: Selection of candidates will be made on the basis of Written Examination and Computer Proficiency Test.
Phase-I: Written Examination ( Objective type)
Sl. No.
Subject
Total Marks
1
General English
40
2
Computer Theory
40
3
General Awareness
20
Total
100
Phase-II: Computer Proficiency Practical Test – 100 Marks.
They will have to bring all the original testimonials i.e. Age proof Certificate, Caste Certificate, Educational Qualification Certificate, Computer Proficiency Certificate etc along with Original Treasury Challan for document verification.